A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing teaching about home care with a client who has mild preeclampsia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Perform daily fetal movement counts.
Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day.
Limit sodium intake to 2,000 mg/day.
Rest in bed in the supine position.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should include teaching the client to perform daily fetal movement counts because it is an essential aspect of monitoring the baby's well-being and assessing fetal distress. Fetal movement counts help the client become familiar with their baby's normal patterns of movement, allowing them to detect any changes or decreased movements promptly. This can be crucial in identifying potential issues with the baby's health and seeking timely medical attention.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not advise limiting fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day for a client with mild preeclampsia. Adequate hydration is important during pregnancy, and excessive fluid restriction can lead to dehydration, which is harmful to both the mother and the baby. Preeclampsia can cause fluid retention and high blood pressure, but complete fluid restriction is not the appropriate approach for managing the condition.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not suggest limiting sodium intake to 2,000 mg/day for a client with mild preeclampsia. While reducing sodium intake can be beneficial for some individuals with hypertension, it is not the primary focus in managing mild preeclampsia. The mainstay of treatment for mild preeclampsia typically involves close monitoring, rest, and potential medications to control blood pressure if necessary.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not recommend that the client rest in bed in the supine position. During pregnancy, especially with preeclampsia, lying flat on the back (supine position) can lead to a condition called supine hypotensive syndrome. This occurs when the weight of the uterus presses on the vena cava, reducing blood flow back to the heart and potentially causing a drop in blood pressure and decreased blood flow to the baby.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or
tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.
Choice A rationale:
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.
Choice B rationale:
"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.
Choice D rationale:
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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