A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The client's respiratory rate is 8/min. Which of the following should the nurse administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Naloxone.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility is not relevant in this scenario. Rh incompatibility refers to a condition where the mother's blood is Rh-negative, and the baby's blood is Rh-positive, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. However, this condition is unrelated to the client's current presentation of heavy, red vaginal bleeding without contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Frequency and duration of contractions are not the primary concern in this situation. The client's main complaint is heavy vaginal bleeding without contractions, which indicates a potential issue with the placenta or other pregnancy-related problems.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal lung maturity is not the priority at this stage. The client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Fetal lung maturity is typically assessed if there's a need for early delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
The correct choice. The client is experiencing heavy, red vaginal bleeding, which may be a sign of placental abruption, where the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely. Determining the location of the placenta through an ultrasound can help identify if placental abruption is the cause of bleeding. Placental abruption can be a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Excessive uterine enlargement. Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for excessive uterine enlargement, as a hydatidiform mole is a rare condition in pregnancy where abnormal placental tissue forms instead of a fetus. This abnormal growth can lead to uterine enlargement beyond the expected size for gestational age.
Choice B rationale:
Rapidly dropping human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Rationale: The nurse should also monitor the client's hCG levels. In a normal pregnancy, hCG levels typically rise steadily during the early stages. However, in the case of a hydatidiform mole, hCG levels may either plateau or drop rapidly due to the abnormal placental growth.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal heart rate irregularities. Rationale: Although a hydatidiform mole does not involve a viable fetus, the nurse should still assess for fetal heart rate irregularities. In some rare cases, the presence of abnormal placental tissue can cause confusion in the diagnosis, and there may be coexisting fetal development. Fetal heart rate irregularities may indicate potential complications.
Choice D rationale:
Whitish vaginal discharge. Rationale: Whitish vaginal discharge is not typically associated with a hydatidiform mole. Instead, this finding is more commonly seen in other vaginal infections or conditions unrelated to a molar pregnancy. The nurse should be cautious not to misinterpret this symptom as a definitive sign of a hydatidiform mole.
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