A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The client's respiratory rate is 8/min. Which of the following should the nurse administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Naloxone.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse does not need to report the blood pressure finding. While blood pressure is an essential vital sign to monitor during pregnancy, the scenario does not indicate any abnormalities or concerning values in the client's blood pressure. Therefore, there is no immediate cause for reporting this finding.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should report cerebral manifestations to the provider. The client's complaint of a more severe headache, rated at 5 on a 0 to 10 pain scale, along with feeling dizzy when getting up from the examination table, may indicate potential neurological symptoms. These could be signs of conditions like preeclampsia, which is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, including the brain.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should also report fetal heart rate findings to the provider. The client reports occasional contractions and positive fetal movement, but there is no mention of fetal heart rate in the nurse's notes. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is crucial during prenatal care, as changes in fetal heart rate could indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse does not need to report respiratory rate findings. There is no indication in the nurse's notes of any respiratory issues or complaints from the client, making this finding less relevant to the current situation.
Choice E rationale:
The nurse does not need to report deep tendon reflexes in this context. Deep tendon reflexes are not typically a priority assessment during routine prenatal care unless there are specific concerns or indications of neurological issues.
Choice F rationale:
The nurse does not need to report gastrointestinal assessment findings based on the information provided in the scenario. While the client reports "heartburn,”. there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms or indications of acute gastrointestinal issues requiring immediate reporting.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing the rate of the maintenance IV infusion may be a rational action in some situations, but it is not the first priority when dealing with a fetal heart rate deceleration. The priority is to address the deceleration and potential fetal distress promptly.
Choice B rationale:
Administering oxygen using a nonrebreather mask might be beneficial for the client, but it is not the primary action to take when dealing with fetal heart rate deceleration. The priority is to address the deceleration and ensure fetal well-being.
Choice C rationale:
Elevating the client's legs is unlikely to have a significant impact on fetal heart rate deceleration. This action is more relevant in cases of maternal hypotension or when trying to improve venous return to the heart. It is not the first-line intervention for fetal heart rate decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in the lateral (side-lying) position is the correct action to take first. This position can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, improve blood flow, and increase oxygen supply to the fetus. By changing the client's position, the nurse can potentially resolve the fetal heart rate deceleration and improve fetal well-being.
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