A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?
Placenta previa.
Preterm labor.
Threatened abortion.
Abruptio placentae.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not advise the client to take deep, cleansing breaths before and after each contraction because it can interfere with the natural urge to push and may not be effective in helping with the labor process. When a client feels the urge to push, it is essential to work with their body's natural instincts.
Choice B rationale:
Instructing the client to hold their breath and push while counting to ten is not recommended. This Valsalva manoeuvre can cause a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure, which may reduce blood flow to the heart and brain and may be harmful to both the client and the baby. It's crucial to promote safe pushing techniques during labor.
Choice C rationale:
The instruction to push continuously throughout the entire contraction is also not ideal. Pushing continuously can lead to exhaustion and decrease the effectiveness of each push. It's essential to guide the client on when and how to push effectively to prevent unnecessary fatigue.
Choice D rationale:
The correct instruction is to let the client know when to push according to their contractions. The urge to push is a natural reflex that signifies the baby's descent into the birth canal. The nurse should encourage the client to listen to their body and push when they feel the urge during the contractions. This approach optimizes the client's efforts and conserves their energy for delivery.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
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