A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

Placenta previa.

Preterm labor.

Threatened abortion.

Abruptio placentae.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.

Choice B rationale:

Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.

Choice C rationale:

Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.

Choice D rationale:

Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice B rationale:

The correct answer is Choice B, which is "Newborn hypoglycemia.”. Newborn hypoglycemia is a potential complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. When a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes, her blood glucose levels can be elevated, leading to increased insulin production in the fetus. After birth, the baby's insulin production continues at a high level, which can result in a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. This condition can be serious and requires close monitoring and timely intervention to prevent complications in the newborn.

Choice A rationale :

Placenta previa is not a complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to bleeding during pregnancy and delivery. However, this condition is not directly related to gestational diabetes, and there is no physiological rationale connecting the two.

Choice C rationale

Small for gestational age (SGA) newborn is not a direct complication of maternal gestational diabetes. SGA refers to babies who are smaller in size than expected for their gestational age. While poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy can lead to large babies (macrosomia), it is not typically associated with small babies.

Choice D rationale

Oligohydramnios, which is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, is not a common complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Oligohydramnios can be caused by various factors, but it is not specifically linked to gestational diabetes.

A. Calcium gluconate. B. Naloxone. C. Flumazenil. D. Protamine sulfate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale :

The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale

Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.

Choice C rationale

Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.

Choice D rationale

Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.

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A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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