A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks gestation and has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse recognizes this finding as an indication of which of the following conditions?
Placenta previa.
Preterm labor.
Threatened abortion.
Abruptio placentae.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should monitor the urinary output of the client as it can be an important indicator of hydration and renal function. However, in this specific scenario, the administration of oxytocin via IV infusion after a vaginal delivery requires a different focus for evaluating medication effectiveness.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should primarily assess the fundal consistency to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Oxytocin is often administered after childbirth to promote uterine contractions and prevent postpartum hemorrhage. Checking the fundal consistency helps determine if the uterus is contracting appropriately. A firm fundus indicates effective contractions, which are essential for controlling bleeding and preventing complications.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the pulse rate is a vital aspect of patient care, but it may not be the most relevant parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of oxytocin. Pulse rate can give information about the client's cardiovascular status and general well-being, but it does not directly assess the medication's impact on uterine contractions.
Choice D rationale:
Similarly, keeping an eye on blood pressure is crucial for patient safety and detecting potential issues like hypertension. However, it is not the primary parameter for evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin. Blood pressure monitoring is essential for overall health assessment but does not directly relate to the medication's intended effect.
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