A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe for the nurse to continue the infusion?
Respiratory rate of 16/min.
Heart rate of 60/min.
Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hr.
Diminished deep-tendon reflexes.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: Respiratory rate of 16/min.
Choice A rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults, which is typically between 12 to 20 breaths per minute. In the context of severe preeclampsia, maintaining a normal respiratory rate is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate IV, as one of the signs of magnesium toxicity is respiratory depression. Therefore, a respiratory rate of 16/min indicates that the client is not experiencing respiratory depression and it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion.
Choice B rationale:
A heart rate of 60/min is at the lower end of the normal range, which is 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults. However, bradycardia or a low heart rate can be a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity, especially if accompanied by other symptoms such as hypotension or altered mental status. Without additional context, a heart rate of 60/min alone does not necessarily indicate it is unsafe to continue the infusion, but it would require further assessment.
Choice C rationale:
A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is significantly below the expected minimum of 30 mL/hour for adults. Adequate urine output is an important indicator of kidney function and is essential for the excretion of magnesium. In the case of magnesium sulfate infusion for severe preeclampsia, a low urine output could indicate renal insufficiency and an increased risk of magnesium toxicity. Therefore, a urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is a contraindication for continuing the infusion without further evaluation.
Choice D rationale:
Diminished deep-tendon reflexes can be a sign of magnesium toxicity. Deep-tendon reflexes are assessed to monitor for signs of magnesium overdose during infusion, as magnesium acts as a central nervous system depressant at high levels. If deep-tendon reflexes are diminished, it may suggest that the serum magnesium levels are too high, and the infusion should be paused or discontinued to prevent further toxicity.
In summary, the only finding that clearly indicates it is safe to continue the magnesium sulfate infusion is a normal respiratory rate, as provided in choice A. The other options either require further assessment or are indicators of potential magnesium toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
This response is correct because black stools are a common side effect of taking iron supplements. Iron can cause the stool to appear black or
tarry due to the way it is broken down during digestion. It does not necessarily indicate a serious issue, especially if the client is not experiencing any abdominal pain or cramping. Educating the client about this expected side effect helps alleviate any concerns they might have about the change in stool colour.
Choice A rationale:
"Go to the emergency room and your provider will meet you there.”. This response is not appropriate in this situation. The client's report of black stools without abdominal pain or cramping is likely due to the iron supplements and does not warrant a visit to the emergency room. This response may cause unnecessary panic and anxiety for the client.
Choice B rationale:
"What else have you been eating?.”. This response is also not the best choice. While it's essential for healthcare providers to gather comprehensive information about a client's diet and lifestyle, in this case, the client's black stools can be directly attributed to the iron supplements. Focusing on other dietary factors might distract from addressing the client's concern about the side effect of iron supplementation.
Choice D rationale:
"Come to the office, and we will check things out.”. This response is not the most appropriate one either. A visit to the office might not be necessary solely based on the client's report of black stools without accompanying pain or cramping. This situation can be managed through education, and the client can be reassured that it is a typical side effect of iron supplements. An unnecessary visit to the office could inconvenience the client and waste both their time and the healthcare provider's time.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Uterine contraction lasting 2 min.
Choice A rationale:
Early decelerations in the FHR are usually not a concern during the second stage of labor. They are a normal physiological response to the compression of the fetal head during contractions and are generally considered benign.
Choice B rationale:
Pelvic pressure with contractions is a normal finding during the second stage of labor as the baby descends into the pelvis. It does not typically require reporting to the provider unless it is associated with other concerning symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A bloody show from the vagina is a common and expected finding during the second stage of labor. It indicates that the cervix is dilating and effacing, which is a normal part of the labor process.
Choice D rationale:
A uterine contraction lasting 2 minutes is abnormal and could indicate uterine tachysystole, which can lead to fetal distress due to reduced uterine blood flow and oxygen to the fetus. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately.
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