A nurse is assisting in the care of a newborn following birth. At 1 min after birth, the nurse notes the following: heart rate 110/min; slow, weak cord flexion of extremities; grimace in response to suctioning of the nares; body pink in color with blue extremities.
What should the nurse document as the newborn's 1-min Apgar score?
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B"}
The Apgar score is a scoring system used by doctors and nurses to assess newborns one minute and five minutes after they are born. The score is based on five criteria: activity, pulse, grimace, appearance, and respiration, with each criterion receiving a score of 0 to 2 points.
If we apply this scoring system to the information provided, the newborn's 1- minute Apgar score would be:
Activity: 1 point (limbs flexed)
Pulse: 1 point (heart rate less than 100 beats per minute) Grimace: 1 point (facial movement/grimace with stimulation) Appearance: 1 point (body pink but extremities blue) Respiration: 1 point (irregular, weak crying)
The total score is 5 points, which is considered moderately abnormal.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Precipitous birth
This is because precipitous birth, which is defined as a labor that lasts less than three hours from the onset of contractions to delivery, is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. This is because the uterus may not contract well after a rapid delivery, leading to uterine atony and bleeding. Other risk factors for postpartum hemorrhage include uterine overdistension, oxytocin use, placental abruption, placenta previa, infection, coagulation disorders, and previous history of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice A is not correct because gestational hypertension is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and can lead to complications such as preeclampsia, eclampsia, and placental abruption³.
Choice B is not correct because small for gestational age newborn is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that indicates that the baby's growth was restricted in the womb and weighs less than 90% of other babies of the same gestational age. It can be caused by maternal factors, placental factors, or fetal factors⁴.
Choice C is not correct because a two-vessel umbilical cord is not a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. It is a condition that occurs when the umbilical cord has only one artery and one vein instead of the normal two arteries and one vein. It can be associated with congenital anomalies, intrauterine growth restriction, and stillbirth.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Check for blood under the client's buttock. This is because lochia rubra is the normal vaginal discharge that occurs after childbirth, consisting of blood, mucus, and tissue from the placenta and the uterus lining. It is usually heavy for the first three to four days and can pool under the client's buttocks if they are lying down. Checking for blood under the buttock can help assess the amount of bleeding and prevent complications such as infection or hemorrhage.
The other choices are not correct for the following reasons:
A. Increasing the rate of the IV fluids is not necessary because the client's fundus is firm and midline, indicating that the uterus is contracting well and preventing excessive bleeding.
B. Assisting the client to ambulate is not advisable because it can increase the lochia flow and cause fainting or dizziness due to blood loss.
C. Performing fundal massage is not indicated because the fundus is already firm and midline, meaning that the uterus is adequately contracted. Massaging a firm fundus can cause pain and discomfort to the client.
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