A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
"I need to schedule the test when the baby is usually active.".
"The baby's heart rate will be monitored during the test.".
"I will have to lie on my back during the test.".
"I will be able to go to the bathroom during the test as necessary.".
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The client's statement, "I need to schedule the test when the baby is usually active,”. is accurate and demonstrates a good understanding of the nonstress test (NST). The NST is typically performed to assess the baby's heart rate and movements when they are active, which provides better insights into the baby's well-being.
Choice B rationale:
The client's statement, "The baby's heart rate will be monitored during the test,”. is correct and indicates a solid grasp of the purpose of the NST. During the test, the baby's heart rate is continuously monitored to assess their overall well-being and any signs of distress.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The client's statement, "I will have to lie on my back during the test,”. indicates a need for further teaching. In an NST, pregnant individuals are usually asked to lie on their left side, not on their back. The left lateral position enhances blood flow to the placenta and the baby, making it the preferred position for this test.
Choice D rationale:
The client's statement, "I will be able to go to the bathroom during the test as necessary,”. is accurate and demonstrates a good understanding of the NST procedure. Unlike some other prenatal tests, NST allows pregnant individuals to change positions, including using the bathroom if needed, to ensure their comfort during the monitoring process.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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