A nurse is reviewing laboratory results from a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational diabetes. The nurse notes that blood glucose levels taken 1 hr following a meal range from 145 mg/dL to 162 mg/dL over the past week. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test.
Tell the client to increase carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake.
Obtain an HbA1c.
Reinforce instruction about insulin administration.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse does not need to report the blood pressure finding. While blood pressure is an essential vital sign to monitor during pregnancy, the scenario does not indicate any abnormalities or concerning values in the client's blood pressure. Therefore, there is no immediate cause for reporting this finding.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should report cerebral manifestations to the provider. The client's complaint of a more severe headache, rated at 5 on a 0 to 10 pain scale, along with feeling dizzy when getting up from the examination table, may indicate potential neurological symptoms. These could be signs of conditions like preeclampsia, which is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, including the brain.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should also report fetal heart rate findings to the provider. The client reports occasional contractions and positive fetal movement, but there is no mention of fetal heart rate in the nurse's notes. Monitoring the fetal heart rate is crucial during prenatal care, as changes in fetal heart rate could indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse does not need to report respiratory rate findings. There is no indication in the nurse's notes of any respiratory issues or complaints from the client, making this finding less relevant to the current situation.
Choice E rationale:
The nurse does not need to report deep tendon reflexes in this context. Deep tendon reflexes are not typically a priority assessment during routine prenatal care unless there are specific concerns or indications of neurological issues.
Choice F rationale:
The nurse does not need to report gastrointestinal assessment findings based on the information provided in the scenario. While the client reports "heartburn,”. there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms or indications of acute gastrointestinal issues requiring immediate reporting.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should state, "The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.”. The rationale behind this choice is that betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly administered to women at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its primary goal is to accelerate fetal lung maturation by promoting the production of surfactant, a substance that coats the lungs and prevents their collapse. By enhancing lung development, the medication helps reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other respiratory complications that premature infants might face. It does not directly impact fetal heart rate (Choice A), halt cervical dilation (Choice B), or stop preterm labor contractions (Choice C).
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.”. Betamethasone does not affect the fetal heart rate, as it is primarily used to enhance lung maturity, as mentioned earlier. The incorrect statement may lead to confusion and misunderstanding of the medication's intended purpose.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.”. Betamethasone does not stop or halt cervical dilation. Its main action is on the fetal lungs to promote surfactant production. Cervical dilation is a natural process that occurs during labor and is not influenced by this medication.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labor contractions.”. Betamethasone is not used to stop or prevent preterm labor contractions directly. Instead, its focus is on improving fetal lung maturity to enhance the baby's respiratory function once born prematurely.
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