A nurse is reviewing laboratory results from a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has gestational diabetes. The nurse notes that blood glucose levels taken 1 hr following a meal range from 145 mg/dL to 162 mg/dL over the past week. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Schedule a 3-hr oral glucose tolerance test.
Tell the client to increase carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake.
Obtain an HbA1c.
Reinforce instruction about insulin administration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should schedule a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for the client because the blood glucose levels taken 1 hour following a meal are higher than the expected range for gestational diabetes. This test will help to diagnose and assess the client's glucose tolerance and determine if there is gestational diabetes or any other potential glucose regulation issues.
Choice B rationale:
Increasing carbohydrates to 65% of daily nutritional intake is not the appropriate action in this situation. It may lead to further elevation of blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental for a client with gestational diabetes. The goal is to manage blood glucose levels and prevent complications, so recommending a higher carbohydrate intake would be counterproductive.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining an HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) is not the most suitable action in this scenario. HbA1c provides an average of the blood glucose levels over the past few months, which is more helpful for diagnosing and monitoring chronic diabetes, rather than gestational diabetes, which is temporary and occurs during pregnancy. An OGTT is a more appropriate test for gestational diabetes assessment.
Choice D rationale:
Reinforcing instruction about insulin administration is not warranted at this point since there is no information indicating that the client is currently on insulin therapy. Additionally, using insulin as the first step in the management of gestational diabetes is not common practice. Lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, and other measures are usually attempted first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Severe nausea and vomiting are not indicative of an ectopic pregnancy. While nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in early pregnancy, they are not specific to ectopic pregnancies. These symptoms are more likely associated with typical pregnancy changes.
Choice B rationale:
Pelvic pain is a crucial finding that the nurse should expect in a possible ectopic pregnancy. As the pregnancy implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube, it can cause sharp and severe pain in the pelvic region. This pain may be unilateral and can be accompanied by shoulder pain due to blood or fluid irritating the diaphragm.
Choice C rationale:
Uterine enlargement greater than expected for gestational age is not likely in an ectopic pregnancy. In fact, uterine enlargement may not be noticeable at all in an ectopic pregnancy since the embryo is not developing in the uterus.
Choice D rationale:
Copious vaginal bleeding is more commonly associated with miscarriages or other complications in intrauterine pregnancies. In an ectopic pregnancy, vaginal bleeding may occur, but it is typically lighter and often described as spotting.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The cervix is dilated 3 cm: This indicates the width of the cervical opening, which is 3 cm wide.
It is effaced 30%: This means the cervix has effaced or thinned out by 30%, indicating how much the cervix has shortened and thinned in preparation for labor.
The presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines (indicated by the negative number, -1): This measurement shows the position of the baby's head in relation to the ischial spines of the pelvis. In this case, the baby's head is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Option A ("The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines."): This option incorrectly interprets the baby's position as being 1 cm below the ischial spines, which is not the case. The negative sign (-1) in the documentation indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Option B ("The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines."): This option switches the interpretation of dilation and effacement. In the original documentation, the dilation is given as 3 cm, while effacement is 30%. This option incorrectly states that effacement is 3 cm and dilation is 30%. Additionally, it correctly identifies the presenting part's position.
Option C ("The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines."): This option correctly interprets effacement and dilation but incorrectly states that the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines. The original documentation indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines, as denoted by the negative sign (-1).
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.