A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. Which of the following risks is the primary rationale the nurse should avoid performing a pelvic examination?
Preterm labor.
Infection.
Profound bleeding.
Rupture of the fetal membranes.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Preterm labor. Performing a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa can potentially trigger uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor. Manipulating the cervix during the examination may stimulate the release of hormones that could initiate labor, putting both the mother and the baby at risk.
Choice B rationale:
Infection. While infection is a valid concern in any medical procedure, it is not the primary rationale for avoiding a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa. The primary concern is the risk of severe bleeding caused by the disruption of the placenta's attachment to the uterine wall.
Choice C rationale:
Profound bleeding. The primary rationale to avoid a pelvic examination in a client with placenta previa is the risk of profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it is at risk of being damaged or detached during a pelvic exam. This can lead to life-threatening hemorrhage for both the mother and the baby.
Choice D rationale:
Rupture of the fetal membranes. While this complication is possible during a pelvic examination, it is not the primary rationale to avoid the procedure in a client with placenta previa. The main concern, as mentioned before, is the risk of severe bleeding that can occur due to placental disruption.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, Maternal hypertension.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypertension is widely recognized as the most common risk factor for placental abruption. High blood pressure can cause the placenta to detach from the uterine wall, leading to abruption. In summary, while all the listed factors can contribute to the risk of placental abruption, maternal hypertension stands out as the most common cause, supported by multiple health sources. It’s important for nurses to recognize and manage hypertension in pregnant clients to minimize the risk of this serious complication.
Choice B rationale:
While maternal cocaine use is a significant risk factor for placental abruption due to its vasoconstrictive effects, which can compromise the placental blood flow, it is not as common as maternal hypertension.
Choice C rationale:
Maternal cigarette smoking is also a risk factor for placental abruption. Smoking can lead to a variety of complications in pregnancy, including placental problems, but again, it is less common than hypertension as a cause for abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Maternal battering can lead to trauma which may result in placental abruption. However, it is not considered the most common risk factor when compared to maternal hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today