A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to undergo an amniotomy. Which of the following is the priority nursing action following this procedure?

Evaluate the client for signs of infection.

Check the fetal heart rate pattern.

Observe the color and consistency of amniotic fluid.

Take the client's temperature.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

The priority nursing action after an amniotomy is to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While evaluating the client for signs of infection is important, it is not the immediate priority. Infection can be a concern after any invasive procedure, but checking the fetal heart rate pattern takes precedence to assess the baby's condition immediately after the amniotomy.

Choice B rationale:

Checking the fetal heart rate pattern is the priority because it helps to monitor the baby's well-being and detect any signs of fetal distress. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of the amniotic membrane, and it can sometimes lead to changes in the baby's heart rate, which may indicate distress or other complications. Identifying and addressing these changes

promptly is crucial for the baby's safety.

Choice C rationale:

Observing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is essential to assess for any abnormalities or meconium staining, which could indicate fetal distress or potential issues. However, this action should follow the immediate concern of checking the fetal heart rate pattern since fetal distress takes priority over amniotic fluid characteristics.

Choice D rationale:

Taking the client's temperature is important, but it is not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. Monitoring the client's temperature is a routine nursing action to detect any signs of infection. However, the priority in this situation is to ensure the baby's well-being through fetal heart rate assessment.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale :

The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale

Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.

Choice C rationale

Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.

Choice D rationale

Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.

A. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. B. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. C. This medication prevents the formation of Rh antibodies by a woman who is Rh-negative. D. This medication prevents the formation of RH antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This statement is incorrect because Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Instead, it acts to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in the mother.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is also incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. It is given to Rh-negative women to prevent them from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-positive fetal blood during pregnancy.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women to prevent the formation of Rh antibodies. If an Rh-negative woman is exposed to Rh-positive blood (usually during childbirth), her immune system may recognize the Rh antigen as foreign and start producing Rh antibodies. These antibodies could potentially cross the placenta during a subsequent pregnancy and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus, causing hemolytic disease in the newborn. Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent this sensitization process.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not prevent the formation of Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Its main purpose is to protect Rh-negative women from forming antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive pregnancies.

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A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is to undergo an amniotomy. Which of the following is the priority nursing action following this procedure?

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