A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who is in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation and has a new prescription for betamethasone. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.".
"The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.".
"The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labour contractions.".
"The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.".
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should state, "The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.”. The rationale behind this choice is that betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly administered to women at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its primary goal is to accelerate fetal lung maturation by promoting the production of surfactant, a substance that coats the lungs and prevents their collapse. By enhancing lung development, the medication helps reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other respiratory complications that premature infants might face. It does not directly impact fetal heart rate (Choice A), halt cervical dilation (Choice B), or stop preterm labor contractions (Choice C).
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.”. Betamethasone does not affect the fetal heart rate, as it is primarily used to enhance lung maturity, as mentioned earlier. The incorrect statement may lead to confusion and misunderstanding of the medication's intended purpose.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.”. Betamethasone does not stop or halt cervical dilation. Its main action is on the fetal lungs to promote surfactant production. Cervical dilation is a natural process that occurs during labor and is not influenced by this medication.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labor contractions.”. Betamethasone is not used to stop or prevent preterm labor contractions directly. Instead, its focus is on improving fetal lung maturity to enhance the baby's respiratory function once born prematurely.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect because Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Instead, it acts to prevent the development of Rh antibodies in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is also incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not destroy Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative. It is given to Rh-negative women to prevent them from forming Rh antibodies in response to Rh-positive fetal blood during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Rho(D) immune globulin is given to Rh-negative women to prevent the formation of Rh antibodies. If an Rh-negative woman is exposed to Rh-positive blood (usually during childbirth), her immune system may recognize the Rh antigen as foreign and start producing Rh antibodies. These antibodies could potentially cross the placenta during a subsequent pregnancy and attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus, causing hemolytic disease in the newborn. Rho(D) immune globulin helps prevent this sensitization process.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is incorrect. Rho(D) immune globulin does not prevent the formation of Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive. Its main purpose is to protect Rh-negative women from forming antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive pregnancies.
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