A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse about the complications associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications should the nurse include?
Placenta previa.
Newborn hypoglycemia.
Small for gestational age newborn.
Oligohydramnios.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
The correct answer is Choice B, which is "Newborn hypoglycemia.”. Newborn hypoglycemia is a potential complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. When a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes, her blood glucose levels can be elevated, leading to increased insulin production in the fetus. After birth, the baby's insulin production continues at a high level, which can result in a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. This condition can be serious and requires close monitoring and timely intervention to prevent complications in the newborn.
Choice A rationale :
Placenta previa is not a complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to bleeding during pregnancy and delivery. However, this condition is not directly related to gestational diabetes, and there is no physiological rationale connecting the two.
Choice C rationale
Small for gestational age (SGA) newborn is not a direct complication of maternal gestational diabetes. SGA refers to babies who are smaller in size than expected for their gestational age. While poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy can lead to large babies (macrosomia), it is not typically associated with small babies.
Choice D rationale
Oligohydramnios, which is a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, is not a common complication associated with maternal gestational diabetes. Oligohydramnios can be caused by various factors, but it is not specifically linked to gestational diabetes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale :
The correct answer is A. Calcium gluconate. The nurse should administer calcium gluconate in this situation because the client's respiratory rate is 8/min, which indicates respiratory depression. Magnesium sulfate is known to cause respiratory depression as a side effect, and calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Calcium gluconate works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium on the neuromuscular junction and restoring normal respiratory function. Prompt administration of calcium gluconate can help reverse respiratory depression and prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
Naloxone. Naloxone is not the correct choice in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of opioids in cases of opioid overdose. Since the client is receiving magnesium sulfate, which is not an opioid, naloxone would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Administering naloxone in this situation would not address the underlying cause and may not improve the client's condition.
Choice C rationale
Flumazenil. Flumazenil is not the correct choice in this situation. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines in cases of benzodiazepine overdose. Since the client is not receiving benzodiazepines but rather magnesium sulfate, flumazenil would not be effective in treating the respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate. Using flumazenil in this context would not be appropriate and could potentially lead to adverse effects.
Choice D rationale
Protamine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is not the correct choice in this scenario. Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity. It works by neutralizing the effects of heparin and preventing further anticoagulation. Since the client's issue is respiratory depression caused by magnesium sulfate, administering protamine sulfate would not be helpful and would not address the primary problem.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Rh incompatibility is not relevant in this scenario. Rh incompatibility refers to a condition where the mother's blood is Rh-negative, and the baby's blood is Rh-positive, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. However, this condition is unrelated to the client's current presentation of heavy, red vaginal bleeding without contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Frequency and duration of contractions are not the primary concern in this situation. The client's main complaint is heavy vaginal bleeding without contractions, which indicates a potential issue with the placenta or other pregnancy-related problems.
Choice C rationale:
Fetal lung maturity is not the priority at this stage. The client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is considered full term. Fetal lung maturity is typically assessed if there's a need for early delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
The correct choice. The client is experiencing heavy, red vaginal bleeding, which may be a sign of placental abruption, where the placenta separates from the uterine wall prematurely. Determining the location of the placenta through an ultrasound can help identify if placental abruption is the cause of bleeding. Placental abruption can be a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.
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