Review VATI ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023

Exam Review

VATI ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy

We are excited to announce the release of a NEW VERSION OF THE SYSTEM! To benefit from the latest features, improvements, and component updates, please switch to the new system as soon as possible.

Visit Latest Version

Total Questions : 178

Showing 20 questions, Sign in for more

Question 1:

A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

A. 1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber B. Tidaling with spontaneous respirations C. Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H20 D. Drainage collection chamber is one-third full

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

1 cm of water present in the water seal chamber is within the expected range.

Choice B:

Tidaling with spontaneous respirations indicates the system is functioning properly.

Choice C:

Suction chamber pressure of -20 cm H2O is within the expected range for adequate suction.

Choice D:

The drainage collection chamber being one-third full suggests an accumulation of fluid beyond the expected level, which may indicate a potential complication such as hemorrhage or fluid buildup in the pleural space, requiring intervention by the nurse.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 2:

A nurse is caring for a toddler who has respiratory syncytial virus. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

A. Wear an N95 respiratory mask while caring for the toddler. B. Place the toddler in a room with negative air pressure. C. Use a designated stethoscope when caring for the toddler. D. Remove the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Wearing an N95 respiratory mask is not typically required for routine care of a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus unless performing procedures that generate aerosols.

Choice B:

Negative pressure rooms are generally reserved for patients with airborne infections liketuberculosis; respiratory syncytial virus does not typically require isolation in a negative pressure room.

Choice C:

Using a designated stethoscope helps prevent the spread of infection to other patients by avoiding cross-contamination.

Choice D:

Removing the disposable gown after leaving the toddler's room is appropriate for maintaining infection control but is not specific to caring for a toddler with respiratory syncytial virus.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 3:

A nurse is planning to provide community education about viral hepatitis. Which of the following should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?

A. A series of four hepatitis vaccines is recommended to prevent viral hepatitis. B. Hepatitis B is transmitted by contaminated food. C. Chronic hepatitis can lead to renal cell cancer. D. Clients who have a history of viral hepatitis are unable to donate blood.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Hepatitis A and B have vaccines available, but the number of doses varies depending on the type of hepatitis. Hepatitis A vaccine requires two doses, while hepatitis B vaccine typically requires three doses. There is no specific vaccine series for viral hepatitis as a whole.

Choice B:

Hepatitis B is primarily transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, not through contaminated food.

Choice C:

Chronic hepatitis, particularly hepatitis B and C, can lead to liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma, but not renal cell cancer.

Choice D:

Clients who have a history of viral hepatitis can donate blood if their infection has resolved and they meet other eligibility criteria.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 4:

A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is taking a garlic supplement. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a contraindication for taking this supplement?

A. The client is taking an antidepressant. B. The client has a history of a seizure disorder. C. The client takes aspirin daily. D. The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Taking an antidepressant is not a contraindication for taking a garlic supplement.

Choice B:

Garlic supplements may lower seizure threshold and can potentially increase the risk of seizures, making it a contraindication for individuals with a history of seizure disorders.

Choice C:

Daily aspirin use is not necessarily a contraindication for taking a garlic supplement, although caution may be needed if the individual is also taking other blood-thinning medications due to potential additive effects.

Choice D:

Having a history of rheumatoid arthritis does not contraindicate the use of garlic supplements.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 5:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

A. Provide a flexible activity schedule. B. Provide high-calorie nutritional supplements. C. Allow the client to eat meals alone in her room. D. Allow the client to choose her clothes independently.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This is not an appropriate action for a client experiencing acute mania. A flexible activity schedule may exacerbate symptoms by allowing too much freedom, leading to overstimulation and a lack of focus. Structured activities with clear boundaries are more effective for managing manic behaviors.

Choice B:

Providing high-calorie nutritional supplements is essential for clients in acute mania because they often exhibit hyperactivity and may neglect to eat or drink adequately. These supplements help maintain nutritional balance and prevent weight loss or dehydration during this period of heightened energy and poor self-care.

Choice C:

Allowing the client to eat meals alone in her room is not appropriate. Clients with acute mania benefit from supervised, structured environments to ensure they are eating and engaging in necessary self-care. Isolation may also increase feelings of disorganization or exacerbate symptoms.

Choice D:

Allowing the client to choose her clothes independently is not recommended during acute mania, as poor judgment and impulsivity may lead to inappropriate or excessive clothing choices. Providing simple, preselected clothing options helps reduce decision-making stress and ensures appropriate attire.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 6:

A charge nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse on how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which of the following agents should the nurse include in theteaching?

A. Hydrogen peroxide B. Isopropyl alcohol C. Chlorine bleach D. Chlorhexidine

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Hydrogen peroxide is not recommended for cleaning surfaces contaminated with blood as it is not as effective as other agents and may not adequately disinfect surfaces.

Choice B:

Isopropyl alcohol can be effective for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood, but it is less effective against certain bloodborne pathogens like hepatitis B virus compared to chlorine bleach.

Choice C:

Chlorine bleach is an effective agent for cleaning surfaces contaminated with blood and is recommended by CDC guidelines for disinfecting against bloodborne pathogens.

Choice D:

Chlorhexidine is primarily used as a skin antiseptic and is not typically used for cleaning surfaces contaminated with blood.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 7:

A nurse is reviewing the history and physical of a client who has right ventricular heart failure.
Which of the following is an expected finding?

A. Crepitus B. Elevated pulmonary artery pressure C. Hepatosplenomegaly D. Confusion

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Crepitus is not typically associated with right ventricular heart failure; it may indicate subcutaneous emphysema or air leakage into the tissues.

Choice B:

Right ventricular heart failure often leads to elevated pulmonary artery pressure due to increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation.

Choice C:

Hepatosplenomegaly may occur in congestive heart failure but is not specific to right ventricular heart failure.

Choice D:

Confusion may occur in severe cases of heart failure due to decreased cerebral perfusion, but it is not specific to right ventricular heart failure.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 8:

A nurse manager is presenting information to the nursing staff regarding the appropriate use of client restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

A. The provider should renew the prescription for restraints every 48 hr. B. The nurse should pad the bony prominences. C. The nurse should tie the restraints using a square knot. D. The nurse should remove the restraints every 2 hr. E. The provider's prescription should include the type of restraint to use.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

The provider should renew the prescription for restraints every 24 hours, not 48 hours. This ensures regular evaluation of the need for continued restraint use.

Choice B:

Padding bony prominences helps prevent skin breakdown and injury from the restraints.

Choice C:

Restraints should be tied using a quick-release knot, not a square knot, to allow for rapid removal in case of emergency.

Choice D:

Restraints should be released every 2 hours (or as specified by the provider) to assess and provide care for the client's needs and to prevent complications such as skin breakdown or circulation impairment.

Choice E:

The provider's prescription should specify the type of restraint to be used, the reason for use, the duration, and any other relevant details to ensure appropriate and safe application.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 9:

A nurse is caring for a client who has neutropenia due to HIV. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

A. Wear an N95 respirator. B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urinary output. C. Monitor the client's vital signs every 8 hr. D. Use a dedicated stethoscope.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary when caring for a client with neutropenia due to HIV unless the client has respiratory symptoms or is undergoing procedures that generate aerosols.

Choice B:

Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary, as it canintroduce the risk of infection, which is particularly concerning in clients with neutropenia.

Choice C:

Monitoring vital signs every 8 hours may not provide sufficient frequency for detecting changes in a client with neutropenia who may be at risk for rapid deterioration.

Choice D:

Using a dedicated stethoscope helps prevent the spread of infection to other clients by avoiding cross-contamination, which is especially important when caring for a client with neutropenia who is at increased risk of infection.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 10:

A nurse at a public health clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a reportable diagnosis to the CDC?

A. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 B. Hepatitis A C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) D. Pediculosis capitis

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 infection is not typically a reportable diagnosis to the CDC unless it is part of a larger outbreak or cluster of cases.

Choice B:

Hepatitis A is a reportable infectious disease to the CDC due to its potential for public health significance, particularly in outbreaks or clusters of cases.

Choice C:

Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is not typically a reportable diagnosis to the CDC unless it is part of a larger study or surveillance effort.

Choice D:

Pediculosis capitis (head lice infestation) is not typically a reportable diagnosis to the CDC unless it is part of a larger outbreak or cluster of cases.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 11:

A nurse is preparing a client for surgery and has just administered the preoperative injection.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Take the client to the bathroom to void. B. Ask the client to verify the surgical site. C. Review deep breathing and coughing exercises. D. Raise the side rails on the bed.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Taking the client to the bathroom after administering a preoperative sedative increases the risk of falls.

Choice B:

Surgical site verification should be completed before administering the preoperative medication.

Choice C:

Teaching should be done before giving the medication, as the sedative may impair learning and recall.

Choice D:

Raising the side rails helps ensure client safety by preventing falls after the medication has been administered.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 12:

A nurse manager is reviewing documentation standards with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager include in the teaching?

A. "Include the complete name of the medication morphine sulfate." B. "Do not use a leading zero prior to a decimal point." C. "Write the letter U when noting the dosage of insulin." D. "Use the abbreviation QOD when indicating every other day."

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

It's important to include the complete name of the medication to ensure clarity and accuracy in documentation.

Choice B:

Omitting the leading zero before a decimal point can lead to medication errors, so it's important to include it.

Choice C:

"U" is commonly used to denote units when documenting insulin dosage, so this statement is accurate.

Choice D:

"QOD" is an outdated abbreviation and can lead to confusion, so it should not be used; instead, "every other day" should be written out for clarity.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 13:

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about disease prevention to a client who has active tuberculosis. Which of the following should the nurse include?

A. Educating the client how to cover nose and mouth with tissues when coughing B. Recommending the client may return to work after two negative sputum cultures C. Instructing the client that he is no longer contagious after 1 week of medication therapy D. Teaching the client's family to wear protective masks while with the client

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Educating the client on covering the nose and mouth with tissues when coughing helps prevent the spread of tuberculosis by containing respiratory secretions.

Choice B:

A client with active tuberculosis should not return to work until they have completed a sufficient duration of treatment and are deemed non-infectious, not solely based on negative sputum cultures.

Choice C:

The client remains contagious until they have been on appropriate medication therapy for a sufficient duration and are deemed non-infectious by healthcare providers, usually after several weeks of treatment rather than just one week.

Choice D:

While wearing protective masks may be recommended for healthcare workers or individuals with compromised immune systems, it's not necessary for the client's family members unlessthey are in close contact with the client for an extended period.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 14:

A nurse is assessing an adult male client who has a BMI of 20. The nurse should identify that the client's BMI falls within which of the following categories?

A. Healthy weight B. Malnutrition C. Overweight D. Obesity

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A BMI of 20 falls within the healthy weight range for adults.

Choice B:

Malnutrition is characterized by a BMI below the healthy weight range and is typically associated with BMI values less than 18.5.

Choice C:

Overweight is characterized by a BMI between 25 and 29.9.

Choice D:

Obesity is characterized by a BMI of 30 or higher.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 15:

A nurse in the recovery room is assessing a client who has a new chest tube. The nurse finds that the water seal is no longer tidaling. The nurse should identify the finding as resulting from which of the following?

A. An air leak noted at the insertion site. B. The tubing may be kinked. C. Water needs to be added to the suction-control chamber. D. The suction is set too low.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

An air leak noted at the insertion site would result in continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, not the absence of tidaling.

Choice B:

If the tubing is kinked or obstructed, it can prevent the movement of air in and out of the water seal chamber, leading to the absence of tidaling.

Choice C:

If water needs to be added to the suction-control chamber, this would affect the level of suction, not the tidaling in the water seal chamber.

Choice D:

If the suction is set too low, it would not necessarily affect the tidaling in the water seal chamber; instead, it would result in inadequate drainage or lack of suction.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 16:

A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

A. Dependent edema B. Pericardial friction rub C. Paradoxical pulse D. Substernal chest pain

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Dependent edema may be present in pericarditis but is not typically the priority finding unless it indicates worsening heart failure.

Choice B:

Pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in pericarditis but is not the priority unless it indicates cardiac tamponade, which is a medical emergency.

Choice C:

Paradoxical pulse may occur in pericarditis but is not necessarily the priority finding unless it is severe and indicative of cardiac tamponade.

Choice D:

Substernal chest pain is the priority finding in pericarditis as it indicates inflammation of the pericardium, which can lead to complications such as myocardial infarction or cardiactamponade. Prompt intervention is necessary to alleviate pain and prevent complications.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 17:

A nurse is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

A. Edema B. Shortness of breath C. Petechiae D. Change in mental status

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Edema is a common early sign of compartment syndrome as increased pressure within the compartment impairs venous outflow, leading to swelling.

Choice B:

Shortness of breath is not typically associated with compartment syndrome but may indicate other respiratory or cardiac issues.

Choice C:

Petechiae are not typically associated with compartment syndrome but may occur in conditions such as thrombocytopenia or coagulopathy.

Choice D:

Change in mental status is not typically associated with compartment syndrome but may indicate other neurological issues.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 18:

A nurse delegates tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and an assistive personnel (AP).
When admitting a client who is experiencing acute liver failure and who has ascites and an NG tube, which of the following tasks is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to the LPN?

A. Insert an indwelling catheter if the client has not voided in 3 hr. B. Obtain the abdominal girth now and every 4 hr. C. Assess and document the level of consciousness every hour. D. Measure the amount of gastric drainage every 2 hr.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Inserting an indwelling catheter is within the scope of practice for an LPN and requires technical skill and training that an LPN possesses. This task is appropriate for delegation because it does not require the RN's direct clinical judgment or assessment at the time of insertion. The LPN can perform this procedure based on a specific directive from the RN.

Choice B:

Obtaining the abdominal girth is a task that involves assessment and this cannot be delegated by the RN to an LPN.

Choice C:

Assessing and documenting the level of consciousness involves critical thinking andinterpretation of assessment findings, making it more appropriate for the registered nurse to perform.

Choice D:

Measuring gastric drainage is a task that the LPN can perform, but it is less critical compared to the insertion of an indwelling catheter in this scenario. The RN should prioritize delegating tasks to the LPN that require their specific skills, such as catheter insertion, while reserving simpler tasks for the AP.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 19:

A nurse is following protocol for preventing puncture injuries. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Detach the needle from the syringe before discarding it. B. Place broken glass in a wastebasket. C. Recap the needle after administering an injectable medication. D. Place lancets in a puncture-proof container.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Detaching the needle from the syringe before discarding it increases the risk of needlestick injuries and is not recommended.

Choice B:

Placing broken glass in a wastebasket increases the risk of injury to housekeeping staff; it should be disposed of in a puncture-proof container.

Choice C:

Recapping needles increases the risk of needlestick injuries and is not recommended unless there are no alternatives available.

Choice D:

Placing lancets in a puncture-proof container is the correct procedure for preventing puncture injuries, as it safely contains sharp objects and reduces the risk of accidental needlesticks.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 20:

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

A. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL B. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L C. Oral temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F) D. Weight increase of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in the past 24 hr

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is within the expected range for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition and does not require immediate intervention.

Choice B:

A serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention.

Choice C:

An oral temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F) is slightly elevated but may be within the client's normal range and does not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other signs of infection.

Choice D:

A weight increase of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in the past 24 hours indicates fluid overload, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Immediate intervention, such as adjusting the rate of fluid administration or notifying the healthcare provider, is necessary to prevent further complications.

Discussion Section

Posting as Anonymous or Login Here

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Sign Up or Login to view all the 178 Questions on this Exam

Join over 100,000+ nursing students using Naxlex’s science-backend flashcards, practice tests and expert solutions to improve their grades and reach their goals.

Exam Review

VATI ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Share this Share This Link Share on social media Facebook Messager WhatsApp Share URL Copy Close

Total Questions : 178

Sign Up or Login to view all the 178 Questions on this Exam

VATI ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023

Share This Link

Share on social media

Facebook

Messager

WhatsApp

Share URL
Copy