Comprehensive Questions

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Total Questions : 18

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Question 1:

A nurse in a provider’s office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following electrolyte values puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 2:

A nurse is administering a dopamine infusion at a moderate dose to a client who has severe heart failure.
Which of the following is an expected effect?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 3:

A nurse is educating a client receiving hydralazine (Apresoline) The teaching plan should include which of the following points?

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 4:

The nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin. The nurse monitors for findings that would indicate an increased possibility of toxicity, such as:

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 5:

A client is receiving an intravenous infusion of nesiritide (Natrecor). The nurse will look for which of the following adverse effects?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 6:

The medication order for a client who receives nutrition via a feeding tube reads: “Give digoxin 0.125 mg per feeding tube once every morning.” The medication is available in a liquid form 50 mcg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse give for each dose?

Answer and Explanation
Correct Answer: "2.5" mL

Explanation

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that exerts positive inotropic effects by inhibiting the Na+/K+-ATPase pump. This increases intracellular calcium, facilitating myocardial contraction in patients with congestive heart failure. Pharmacological dosing requires precise milligram-microgram conversions to avoid life-threatening digitalis toxicity. The therapeutic reference range is 0.5 to 2.0 ng/mL, and the drug is contraindicated in ventricular fibrillation or obstructive cardiomyopathy.

Rationale for correct answer

The nurse must first perform a metric conversion where 0.125 mg is multiplied by 1000.

This is equal to 125 mcg.

Using the standard formula, the desired dose of 125 mcg is divided by the available concentration of 50 mcg.

This calculation yields a volume of exactly 2.5 mL to be administered.

Test-taking strategy

  • Identify the drug and units: The medication is digoxin, and the order is in mg, while the supply is in mcg.
  • Convert to a common unit:
    • Always convert to the unit available on the label to simplify the final step.
    • 0.125 mg × 1000 = 125 mcg.
  • Apply the dosage formula:
    • Use (Desired / Have) × Quantity.
    • (125 mcg / 50 mcg) × 1 mL = 2.5 mL.
  • Verify the logic:
    • If 1 mL contains 50 mcg, then 2 mL contains 100 mcg.
    • The dose is 125 mcg, so the answer must be more than 2 mL but less than 3 mL.
    • 2.5 mL is the only mathematically logical result based on this estimation.
  • Safety check: Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index. Any calculated volume that seems unusually large (like 25 mL) should be immediately questioned.

Take home points

  • Accurate conversion between milligrams and micrograms is the most critical step in calculating cardiac glycoside dosages.
  • Standardized liquid concentrations of digoxin are often measured in micrograms to ensure high precision in dose delivery.
  • Doubling-checking the decimal point placement is essential, as a single-place error can result in a ten-fold overdose.
  • Always use a calibrated oral syringe for feeding tube administration to ensure the exact delivery of small-volume medications.

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Question 7:

Scenario

An elderly client with known heart failure, who has previously been stable with lisinopril and metoprolol XL, comes into the clinic with an increase in weight and peripheral edema extending halfway up the left calf.

The nurse recognizes the primary actions of the drugs used to for heart failure. Indicate with an X the effect each drug classification will have.

Answer and Explanation

Explanation

Heart failure therapy utilizes neurohormonal modulation to counteract pathological remodeling and fluid retention. Pharmacological agents target the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system or sympathetic nervous system to optimize hemodynamic parameters. These interventions decrease the myocardial workload by manipulating vascular tone and salt excretion. Standard care involves maintaining serum potassium between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L and monitoring ejection fraction percentages.

Rationale for correct answer

ACE Inhibitors. These agents block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, a potent vasoconstrictor. This leads to decreased peripheral resistance and systemic arterial pressure. By inhibiting aldosterone secretion, they also reduce sodium retention, effectively decreasing both preload and afterload.

ARBs. Angiotensin receptor blockers prevent the binding of angiotensin 2 to its specific vascular receptors. This causes systemic vasodilation and a significant afterload reduction. Like ACE inhibitors, they mitigate fluid volume through aldosterone suppression, thereby decreasing cardiac preload effectively.

Beta Blockers. These medications competitively antagonize beta-1 adrenergic receptors located on the myocardium. This action inhibits the sympathetic response, specifically reducing catecholamine-induced damage. The primary clinical result is a slower rate, which increases diastolic filling time and efficiency.

ARB/Neprilysin. This combination blocks the angiotensin receptor while simultaneously inhibiting the enzyme that degrades beneficial vasodilator proteins. This dual action significantly increases peptides like BNP that promote natriuresis. It provides superior vasodilation and volume reduction compared to standard mono-therapy.

Test-taking strategy

  • Categorize by mechanism: Group ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and ARNIs together as they all target the RAAS and primarily affect vascular resistance.
  • Identify unique actions:
    • Only Beta Blockers significantly impact heart rate and sympathetic nerve stimulation.
    • Only ARNI (Entresto) impacts neprilysin to increase natriuretic peptides.
  • Match symptoms to therapy:
    • Peripheral edema and weight gain require preload reduction (ACE/ARB/ARNI).
    • High systemic pressure requires afterload reduction (ACE/ARB/ARNI).
  • Rule out cross-over errors: Do not attribute "increased natriuretic peptides" to standard ACE inhibitors, as this is a distractor specific to newer combination therapies.
  • Focus on the "X" requirements: Ensure that for each drug, every correct physiological effect is marked, as these drugs have multi-modal impacts on the cardiovascular system.

Take home points

  • ACE inhibitors and ARBs are foundational for heart failure because they reduce both the pressure the heart pumps against and the fluid volume returning to it.
  • Beta blockers are vital for long-term survival by shielding the heart from chronic sympathetic overstimulation and reducing oxygen demand.
  • Sacubitril/valsartan (ARNI) is unique because it preserves natriuretic peptides that help the body naturally excrete sodium and dilate vessels.
  • Monitoring for hypotension and hyperkalemia is a priority for all RAAS-modifying drugs, while heart rate must be assessed for beta blockers.

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Question 8:

Scenario

An elderly client with known heart failure, who has previously been stable with lisinopril and metoprolol XL, comes into the clinic with an increase in weight and peripheral edema extending halfway up the left calf.
It was decided that the client in the scenario start on digoxin. The nurse is providing instructions on what to watch for, to detect developing digitalis toxicity. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be included? Select all that apply

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 9:

The nurse is teaching a client about the signs and symptoms of cardiac glycoside toxicity. The nurse should alert the client to watch for which of the following? Select all that apply

Answer and Explanation

A
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Question 10:

An older adult client has been discharged following treatment for heart failure, and will be taking a loop diuretic. Which instructions from the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply

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Question 11:

A client is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 50 mg/ day and digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg/day. The nurse plans to monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 12:

A nurse is educating a heart failure client about diuretics. Which adverse reaction associated with ACE inhibitors is common and can lead to disruption of therapy?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 13:

The nurse is teaching a client with chronic heart failure about spironolactone therapy. Which client statement indicates correct understanding?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 14:

A client with heart failure asks why they are prescribed hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate together. What is the best response by the nurse?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 15:

The nurse is reviewing the medications that have been ordered for a client for whom a loop diuretic has just been prescribed. The loop diuretic may have a possible interaction with which of the following? Select all that apply

Answer and Explanation

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Question 16:

A nurse is caring for a client with renal disease who has an order for furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following actions by the nurse is most important?

Answer and Explanation

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Question 17:

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) IV for peripheral edema.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply

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Question 18:

A nurse is caring for a client on furosemide(Lasix). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer and Explanation

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