Choice A Reason:
"I will perform breast exams the day my period begins." This statement is incorrect because performing breast exams just before or during your period might not be ideal. Breasts can be more tender or swollen during this time, which could make it harder to detect any abnormalities.
Choice B Reason:
"I will perform breast exams every other month." This statement is incorrect. Regular breast self-exams are important, but doing them every other month might not be frequent enough. It's generally recommended to perform breast self-exams once a month, ideally around the same time each month, to detect any changes or abnormalities early.
Choice C Reason:
"It is common for the skin on my breasts to dimple." This statement is incorrect. Dimpling or puckering of the skin on the breasts can sometimes be a sign of an underlying issue, such as breast cancer. It's not considered a normal or common occurrence, so this statement doesn't indicate an understanding of what to look for during a breast self-exam. If a person notices skin changes like dimpling, it's recommended to seek medical advice.
Choice D Reason:
"It is common for one breast to be larger than the other." This statement reflects an understanding that breast asymmetry, where one breast is slightly larger than the other, is a common and normal occurrence.

Choice A Reason:
Requesting a dosage increase if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min is not necessary. Propranolol is used to lower heart rate in conditions like atrial fibrillation, so a heart rate below 60/min might be the desired effect of the medication.
Choice B Reason:
Withholding the medication if the systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg is necessary. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower blood pressure. If the systolic blood pressure drops below 90 mm Hg, withholding the medication is necessary to prevent further lowering of blood pressure, which could lead to adverse effects like dizziness, fainting, or inadequate blood perfusion to vital organs.
Choice C Reason:
Administering the medication with an antacid might interfere with the absorption of propranolol, so they shouldn't be taken together unless instructed by the healthcare provider.
Choice D Reason:
Expecting increased hair growth is not an anticipated effect of propranolol. Hair growth is not a usual side effect associated with this medication.

Choice A Reason:
Informing the client of the adverse effect of diarrhea is less common with clonidine use, especially in comparison to other side effects like dry mouth or skin irritation.
Choice B Reason:
Monitoring for weight loss isn't a primary concern specifically associated with transdermal clonidine use.
Choice C Reason:
Advise the client about increased dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of clonidine, including the transdermal form. Patients should be informed about this so they can manage it effectively, for example, by drinking plenty of water or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production.
Choice D Reason:
Hypopigmentation is not a commonly reported issue with transdermal clonidine patches. However, local skin irritation or rash can occur at the site of the patch.

Choice A Reason:

Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL (0.3 to 1.0 mg/dL) is incorrect. Bilirubin levels within the normal range typically indicate normal liver function. The value of 1.0 mg/dL falls within the expected range, so it doesn't raise immediate concerns regarding the need for a liver biopsy.

Choice B Reason:

Aspartate aminotransferase 34 units/L (0 to 34 units/L) is incorrect. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver, heart, muscles, and red blood cells. While a value of 34 units/L is at the upper limit of the normal range, it's still within the expected range and doesn't typically prompt immediate concern for the need for a biopsy.

Choice C Reason:

Ammonia 55 mcg/dL (10 to 80 mcg/dL ) is incorrect. Ammonia levels can rise in cases of liver dysfunction. The level of 55 mcg/dL falls within the reference range, indicating normal or near-normal ammonia levels, which doesn't usually necessitate an urgent liver biopsy.

Choice D Reason:

Platelets 60,000/mm3 (150,000 to 400,000/mm3) is correct. Platelets are crucial for blood clotting. A significantly low platelet count, such as 60,000/mm3, termed thrombocytopenia, can indicate compromised clotting ability, which might pose a risk of bleeding during or after a liver biopsy. In the context of a liver biopsy, a low platelet count warrants attention and consideration before proceeding with the procedure to prevent excessive bleeding or complications.

Choice A Reason:

Keeping both arms below the level of the client's heart doesn't specifically address the prevention of lymphedema and might not be necessary for this purpose.

Choice B Reason:

Limiting range-of-motion exercises with the affected arm could potentially contribute to stiffness and reduced function, but appropriate and gradual range-of-motion exercises are generally recommended to prevent lymphedema.

Choice C Reason:

Using the client's left arm to obtain blood samples is correct. Lymphedema can occur due to the disruption of lymphatic vessels during surgery, leading to the accumulation of lymph fluid. To reduce the risk of lymphedema, medical procedures or blood draws should typically avoid using the affected arm. In this case, after a right radical mastectomy, using the left arm for blood samples can help protect the compromised lymphatic system in the right arm.

Choice D Reason:

Obtaining blood pressure readings using the client's right arm is not directly related to preventing lymphedema. However, excessive pressure or trauma to the affected arm should generally be avoided to reduce the risk of lymphedema.

Choice A Reason:

Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F) is incorrect . While a slightly elevated temperature can sometimes accompany an infection, it's not specific to a bladder infection and might not be present in all cases.

Choice B Reason:

Changed mental status is incorrect. Bladder infections or urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older adults can often present with atypical symptoms, and changes in mental status or acute confusion are common indicators in this population. UTIs can cause subtle but significant alterations in mental function, particularly in the elderly, leading to confusion, agitation, or cognitive impairment.

Choice C Reason:

WBC count 9,000/mm3 (5000 to 10,000/mm3) is incorrect .A WBC count within the normal range doesn't necessarily rule out or confirm a bladder infection. In some cases, UTIs might not significantly elevate the white blood cell count, especially in localized infections.

Choice D Reason:

Diminished reflexes is incorrect . Diminished reflexes are not typically associated with a bladder infection. They might indicate other neurological or muscular issues but are not a common sign of a UTI.

Choice A Reason:

"Having a total cholesterol level below 200 mg/dl increases my risk for a stroke." This statement is incorrect. Generally, having a total cholesterol level below 200 mg/dl is considered beneficial for heart health and reducing the risk of stroke.

Choice B Reason:

"My risk for a stroke increases if my HbA1c level is 6 percent or less." This statement is incorrect. An HbA1c level of 6 percent or less is an indicator of good blood sugar control, which usually reduces the risk of stroke. A higher HbA1c level is associated with an increased risk of complications in diabetes, including stroke.

Choice C Reason:

"My provider might prescribe a glucocorticoid regimen to decrease my risk for a stroke." - Glucocorticoids are not typically prescribed to reduce the risk of stroke in individuals with diabetes. These medications may have various uses but are not a standard preventive measure for stroke in this context.

Choice D Reason:

"I can decrease my risk for a stroke by losing excess weight." This statement is appropriate. Maintaining a healthy weight is a significant factor in reducing the risk of stroke, especially for individuals with diabetes. Weight management contributes to better control of blood pressure, cholesterol levels, and blood sugar, which collectively reduce the risk of stroke.

Choice A Reason:

Discarding soiled wound care supplies in a trash receptacle outside the client's room is generally a good practice for infection control. However, this action alone might not be sufficient for managing an infectious wound. Proper disposal is essential, but placing the client in isolation is more critical to prevent the spread of infection.

Choice B Reason:

Administering antibiotic therapy before culturing the wound might interfere with accurate culture results. It's generally preferred to obtain wound cultures before starting antibiotic therapy to identify the specific pathogens causing the infection and determine the most effective treatment.

Choice C Reason:

Placing the client in a private room with a private bathroom is correct. Isolating the client in a private room with a private bathroom helps minimize the spread of potential pathogens present in the wound drainage. This measure helps contain the infection and prevents exposure to others.

Choice D Reason:

Instructing visitors to perform hand hygiene for only 5 seconds after leaving the client's room isn't thorough enough for proper infection control. Proper hand hygiene typically involves washing hands with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizer for at least 20 seconds to effectively reduce the spread of infection.

Choice A Reason:

Measuring the client's intake and output every 8 hours is a general nursing intervention but might not be specifically pertinent to managing viral meningitis.

Choice B Reason:

Dim the lighting in the client's room is correct. Meningitis often causes sensitivity to light (photophobia) due to the inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. Dimming the lighting in the client's room helps reduce discomfort and sensitivity to light, which is a common symptom of meningitis.

Choice C Reason:

Monitoring the client's temperature every 6 hours is a routine nursing practice, but in viral meningitis, more frequent temperature monitoring might be necessary, especially if the client shows signs of fever or instability.

Choice D Reason:

Initiating contact precautions for viral meningitis is not typically necessary because it's usually transmitted through respiratory secretions. Standard precautions for infection control, including proper hand hygiene, are usually sufficient.

Choice A Reason:

Setting the degree of flexion and extension as tolerated by the client is generally appropriate in a CPM device, but this should be done within the prescribed range recommended by the healthcare provider. Simply allowing the client to adjust the degree of flexion and extension without guidance might lead to overextension or inadequate movement, potentially causing discomfort or hindering recovery.

Choice B Reason:

Padding the CPM device with a thick pillow isn't the recommended approach. CPM devices typically come with appropriate padding to ensure comfort and proper positioning. Using a thick pillow might alter the device's mechanics or cause uneven support, affecting the intended movement of the knee.

Choice C Reason:

Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) isn't a standard or necessary position for using a CPM device after a knee arthroplasty. The client can typically use the CPM device while lying in a comfortable and relaxed position, following the healthcare provider's instructions regarding positioning during CPM therapy.

Choice D Reason:

Aligning the client's joints with the joints on the frame is essential for the correct function of the CPM device. This alignment helps in providing the intended range of motion without causing unnecessary stress or strain on the knee joint.