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Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake
Total Questions : 176
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Client presents to the clinic at 10 weeks gestation. Client reports abdominal cramping and moderate, bright red vaginal bleeding. Cervix is open upon vaginal examination by provider. Client has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and recurrent chlamydia infections.
1000:
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level 30,000 international units/L (greater than 25,000 international units/L
Hemoglobin 12 g/dL (greater than 11 g/dL) Hematocrit 35% (greater than 33%)
A nurse is caring for a client at the clinic.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The client is at risk for
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Spontaneous abortion: The client is at risk of a spontaneous abortion, as evidenced by bright red vaginal bleeding, cramping, and an open cervix at 10 weeks gestation. These findings are classic for an inevitable abortion, particularly when fetal viability has not been confirmed and symptoms are active.
- Cervical dilation: Cervical dilation during the first trimester, especially in conjunction with vaginal bleeding and uterine cramping, confirms that the miscarriage process is in progress. In a viable pregnancy, the cervix remains closed, so dilation is a key indicator of pregnancy loss.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Molar pregnancy: While molar pregnancies can cause elevated hCG levels, they typically present with painless bleeding, absence of a fetus on ultrasound, and may show signs like early-onset preeclampsia or hyperemesis. The presence of pain and cervical dilation points away from a molar pregnancy.
- Ectopic pregnancy: An ectopic pregnancy more often presents with sharp unilateral lower abdominal pain, low or slowly rising hCG levels, and an empty uterus on ultrasound. The findings of cervical dilation and an hCG level consistent with intrauterine pregnancy reduce the likelihood of an ectopic pregnancy.
- Bright red vaginal bleeding: Although bright red bleeding suggests active hemorrhage and is concerning, it can occur in a variety of obstetric conditions. Without cervical dilation or signs of fetal compromise, it cannot alone confirm spontaneous abortion.
- History of chlamydia infection: While a history of chlamydia increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy due to tubal scarring, it is not a direct indicator of current pregnancy loss. It does not outweigh the importance of current symptoms like cervical dilation in determining the client's current risk.
0800:
Client transported to emergency department by emergency medical services (EMS). Client found in a bathroom at a bar unresponsive and without a pulse. Report by EMS is that there was a needle in the client's left antecubital space. Naloxone was administered at the scene. EMS relayed that someone saw the client have one beer and then go to the bathroom.
Client drowsy, arouses to noxious stimuli, but falls back asleep quickly.
Eyes: Pupils reactive, miotic
Heart: Normal rate and rhythm
Lungs: Equal bilateral, clear to auscultation
Abdomen: Decreased bowel sounds
Skin: Marks in left antecubital space
Review of medical record 2 weeks prior:
Discharge note: At 0600, client transported to the emergency department by emergency medical services (EMS). Client was found in the park by runners, who then contacted EMS. Client presented with manifestations of sedation, miosis, hypökinesis, and mood alteration. Supportive care provided. At 1000, client reported stating "I am going to throw up. I've never used this drug before. Assessment revealed mydriasis, hyperreflexia, diaphoresis, piloerection. Supportive care provided. Medications included buprenorphine/naloxone taper x 4 days. Client stabilized and discharged back to shelter after completing the 4- day buprenorphine/naloxone taper
0800:
- Temperature 37.2° C (99° F)
- Heart rate 60/min
- Respiratory rate 10/min
- Blood pressure 98/64 mm Hg
Two weeks ago, 0600:
- Temperature 36.7° C (98.2° F)
- Heart rate 62/min
- Respiratory rate 14/min
- Blood pressure 110/66 mm Hg
1000:
- Temperature 37.4° C (99.4° F)
- Heart rate 110/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- Blood pressure 148/86 mm Hg
A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.
The nurse reviews the medical record.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options
The client likely experienced
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Opioid intoxication: The client's decreased respiratory rate, drowsiness, pinpoint pupils, and positive response to naloxone are all indicative of opioid intoxication. These features, along with the presence of a needle in the antecubital space, strongly support recent opioid use and CNS depression.
- Pupil characteristics: Miotic pupils, or pinpoint pupils, are a classic physical sign of opioid intoxication. They occur due to opioid stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system, and in a sedated client with a history of injection drug use, they confirm the likelihood of opioid overdose.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Alcohol intoxication: Alcohol intoxication usually presents with disinhibition, unsteady gait, slurred speech, and potentially aggressive or inappropriate behavior. The client’s severe sedation, low respiratory rate, and constricted pupils are not typical features of alcohol intoxication, especially with only one beer reported.
- Alcohol withdrawal: Alcohol withdrawal manifests with symptoms like tremors, agitation, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability (tachycardia, hypertension). This client is sedated with bradypnea and hypotension, which are incompatible with alcohol withdrawal and more suggestive of CNS depression.
- Opioid withdrawal: Opioid withdrawal is marked by agitation, anxiety, mydriasis, vomiting, diarrhea, and piloerection. In contrast, this client is drowsy, has decreased bowel sounds, and constricted pupils, pointing toward active opioid intoxication rather than withdrawal.
- Amount of alcohol consumed: The report from EMS indicates the client consumed only one beer, which is insufficient to explain the severity of the symptoms. Minimal alcohol intake also makes both intoxication and withdrawal from alcohol highly unlikely as the primary issue.
- Current temperature: The client’s current temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is within normal limits and does not support any particular diagnosis. It neither confirms nor excludes opioid or alcohol intoxication or withdrawal and is not a defining clinical sign in this context.
- Breath sounds: Breath sounds are equal and clear, offering no abnormal findings to support or contradict a diagnosis. While important for general assessment, they are not specific indicators for opioid intoxication or withdrawal and thus are less relevant than pupil changes.
0800:
Guardian states child was awake most of the night complaining of pain, currently asleep. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy, shallow. Breath sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, tender in incisional area upon palpation. Absent bowel sounds. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.
1200:
Child rates abdominal pain as 6 on the FACES pain rating scale. Alert and irritable, cooperates with coaxing/playing. Child refuses use of incentive spirometer. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy, shallow. Breath sounds clear throughout. Abdomen soft, more tender upon palpation as compared to 0800. Absent bowel sounds. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact.
1245:
Child rates abdominal pain as 4 on the FACES pain rating scale.
1600:
Child rates abdominal pain as 8 on the FACES pain rating scale. Heart rate regular without murmur. Respirations easy, shallow. Breath sounds slightly diminished in the bases. Child encouraged to use incentive spirometer, but child continues to refuse to use the incentive spirometer. Abdomen with diffuse tenderness. Absent bowel sounds. Right lower quadrant abdominal dressing dry and intact
0800:
- Temperature 37° C (98.6° F) temporal
- Heart rate 118/min
- Respiratory rate 20/min
- Blood pressure 92/52 mm Hg
- Weight 13.6 kg (30 lb)
1200:
- Temperature 37.2° C (98.9° F) temporal
- Heart rate 125/min
- Respiratory rate 22/min
1600:
- Temperature 37.7° C (99°9) temporal
- Heart rate 124/min
- Respiratory rate 24/min
Acetaminophen 120 mg rectally every 4 hr as needed for temperature greater than or equal to 38.5° C (101.3° F)
Morphine sulfate 1 mg IV every 3 hr as needed for pain
1215:
Morphine sulfate 1 mg IV
A nurse on a pediatric unit is caring for a preschooler who is postoperative following an appendectomy.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
The child is at risk for developing
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- Pneumonia: The child is at risk for pneumonia, a common postoperative complication in pediatric clients, particularly after abdominal surgery. The presence of shallow breathing, refusal to use the incentive spirometer, and slight decrease in breath sounds at the bases suggest poor lung expansion and secretion stasis, increasing the risk of atelectasis and secondary infection.
- Shallow breathing: Shallow breathing is likely due to pain and limited movement of the diaphragm after abdominal surgery. It reduces alveolar ventilation, promoting hypoventilation and mucus retention, which predisposes the lungs to infection and the development of postoperative pneumonia.
- Lack of incentive spirometer use: Incentive spirometry is essential for preventing postoperative pulmonary complications by encouraging deep breathing and lung expansion. The child’s ongoing refusal to use the spirometer further increases the risk of pneumonia by allowing mucus to accumulate in the lungs, especially when combined with shallow breathing.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- Peritonitis: Peritonitis would likely present with a rigid abdomen, high fever, worsening or spreading pain, and systemic signs of infection. While the child has abdominal tenderness, the dressing remains dry and intact, bowel sounds are absent but stable, and there is no significant fever or signs of sepsis, making peritonitis less likely.
- Wound infection: Wound infection would manifest as redness, swelling, purulent drainage, or increased warmth at the surgical site. The child’s dressing is consistently dry and intact throughout the day, with no signs of wound disruption or local infection noted in the nurse’s documentation.
- Bowel sounds: Absent bowel sounds are expected after abdominal surgery and may persist for 24–72 hours. While this finding warrants monitoring, it is not directly linked to pneumonia and is better associated with risks like postoperative ileus or delayed gastrointestinal recovery.
- Temperature: The child’s temperature remains below the threshold of 38.5°C and has only minimally increased from 37.0°C to 37.7°C throughout the day. This mild elevation is not specific to indicate infection and does not confirm a risk of pneumonia or other systemic complications.
- Surgical dressing: The surgical dressing remains dry and intact with no signs of leakage or infection. This finding suggests appropriate healing at the incision site and does not indicate any direct complication such as pneumonia or wound infection.
- Abdominal tenderness: Although abdominal tenderness has increased slightly, it is still expected in the postoperative period. Without signs of peritoneal inflammation or wound infection, this symptom alone does not confirm a complication and is more reflective of localized surgical pain.
0800:
Pediatric provider's office note:
Caregiver reports that for the past 2 days their toddler has had a fever as high as 38.6° C (101.5° F), has been irritable, and refuses to eat or drink. Caregiver reports the toddler's older sibling was sick 5 days ago with upper respiratory infection.
Toddler is awake, active, and crying. Mucous membranes are pink and slightly dry. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. Skin is warm and dry. Tonsils are swollen and erythematous. No signs of respiratory distress noted. Has moderate amount of clear mucoid nasal secretions.
Rapid Group A Beta-hemolytic Streptococci (GABHS) test done and was negative. Throat culture obtained and sent to lab.
Missed appointment for 15-month vaccinations, otherwise immunizations are up to date.
Caregiver provided with instructions about care of toddler if toddler does not improve in 24 hr, caregiver instructed to call for appointment to be seen.
2200:
Emergency department provider's note:
Toddler seen earlier in provider's office. Respirations are rapid with slight subcostal retractions. Tonsils are swollen and erythematous, no exudate noted. Moderate rhinorrhea present No cervical lymphadenopathy note. Mucous membranes are dry and pink. Toddler is fussy and oxygen saturations below expected range. Started on 1min of oxygen via nasal cannula.
2200:
18-month-old toddler brought to emergency department by caregivers. Toddler was seen earlier today in provider's office. Caregiver feels the child's breathing is getting worse and doesn't want to wait until tomorrow to see provider.
Toddler is awake and crying. No tears are noted. Mucous membranes are slightly moist and pink. No drooling noted. Skin is warm and dry. Capillary refill is 2 seconds. Mild wheezing is heard in all lobes. Respirations are rapid with slight subcostal retractions. Abdomen is soft, non-distended and bowel sounds are present. Oxygen at 1 L/min is administered via nasal cannula prescribed by provider.
0800:
- Pediatric provider’s office note:
- Temperature 38.4° C (101.1° F)
- Heart rate 143/min
- Respiratory rate 26/min
- Blood pressure 88/48 mm Hg
2200:
- Emergency department provider’s note:
- Temperature 38.8° C (101.8° F)
- Heart rate 156/min
- Respiratory rate 44/min
- Blood pressure 88/46 mm Hg
- Oxygen saturation is 90% on room air
A nurse is caring for an 18-month-old toddler in the emergency department.
For each potential assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with Epiglottitis, Respiratory Syncytial Virus, or Acute Streptococcal Pharyngitis, Each finding may support more than 1 disease process.
Explanation
Rationale:
- Drooling: Drooling is classic in epiglottitis due to severe throat pain and an inability to swallow. It is not commonly seen in RSV or streptococcal pharyngitis, where swallowing remains relatively intact.
- Hypoxia: Both epiglottitis and RSV can cause hypoxia. In epiglottitis, airway obstruction can quickly compromise oxygenation. In RSV, hypoxia results from inflammation and mucus plugging in the small airways.
- Fever: Fever is a nonspecific but common finding across all three conditions. It signals an inflammatory or infectious process, whether viral (RSV), bacterial (Streptococcus), or in epiglottitis (often Haemophilus influenzae type b if unimmunized).
- Tachypnea: Tachypnea may occur in both epiglottitis and RSV as the body compensates for airway compromise and impaired gas exchange. It is not a typical feature of uncomplicated streptococcal pharyngitis.
- Exudate on pharynx: Pharyngeal exudates are common in streptococcal pharyngitis and help differentiate it from viral causes. They are typically absent in RSV and epiglottitis, where the pathology lies elsewhere (lower airways or supraglottic structures).
- Wheezing upon auscultation: Wheezing is a hallmark of RSV due to bronchiolar inflammation and narrowing. It is not seen in epiglottitis or streptococcal pharyngitis, as those conditions do not primarily affect the bronchioles.
1300:
Child is accompanied by their parent. Parent reports that their child is experiencing stomach pain and occasional vomiting Parent states the child eats well, but sometimes has severe pain that causes them to "draw their knees to their chest and scream, but then returns to being themself, Parent noted blood and mucus in the child's bowel movement today.
1310:
Child is alert and responsive to verbal stimuli, Pain rated as 5 on the Facial expression, Leg movement, Activity, Cry, Consolability (FLACC) scale. Lung sounds clear anterior and posterior Respirations even, nonlabored. Heart rate regular. Abdomen distended with hypoactive bowel sounds x 4 quadrants and tenderness with light palpation noted in right upper quadrant Small, oblong, palpable mass noted in upper right quadrant.
1320:
- Temperature 37.4° C (99.3° F)
- Heart rate 110/min
- Respiratory rate 26/min
- Blood pressure 95/56 mm Hg
For each potential assessment finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with Crohn’s disease, appendicitis or intussusception. Each finding may support more than 1 disease process.
Explanation
Rationale:
- Temperature: The child’s temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), which is mildly elevated. Crohn’s disease typically causes intermittent fever during flare-ups. Appendicitis often presents with a higher fever in later stages. Intussusception can cause low-grade fever due to bowel inflammation, making it the most consistent with this finding.
- Vomiting: Vomiting is uncommon in Crohn’s disease unless there’s obstruction or severe disease. In appendicitis, vomiting usually follows the onset of pain and is related to peritoneal irritation. Intussusception often involves vomiting early due to intermittent bowel obstruction, making it consistent with this client’s symptoms.
- Abdominal findings: Crohn’s disease rarely produces a palpable abdominal mass or sudden distension. Appendicitis can cause right-sided tenderness and decreased bowel sounds but does not typically involve a mass. Intussusception often presents with a distended abdomen, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant, as described.
- Stool: Crohn’s disease can lead to bloody, mucus-filled stools due to ulceration in the intestinal lining. Appendicitis does not typically alter stool characteristics unless perforation occurs. Intussusception is well known for producing “currant jelly” stools, composed of blood and mucus, aligning with this child’s bowel movement description.
- Pain rating: A FLACC score of 5 indicates moderate pain. Crohn’s pain tends to be chronic and crampy rather than episodic. Appendicitis pain worsens over time and becomes localized, typically in the right lower quadrant. Intussusception causes intermittent, severe abdominal pain with sudden relief, matching the child’s pain episodes and behavior.
2 months ago:
A 16-year-old adolescent presents to the outpatient dermatologist's office with reports of worsening acne that is not responding to over-the-counter topical therapy. Adolescent states the acne "is messing with my self-esteem." Adolescent has no past medical history, takes no prescribed medications, is not sexually active, and does not smoke or use illicit drugs. They live with family.
Adolescent appears well-nourished, no distress. Oropharynx dear, mucous membranes moist: bilateral breath sounds clear. Severe cystic acne noted to bilateral cheeks and forehead.
Today:
Adolescent returns with parent for a follow-up and states there has been no improvement in acne. Adolescent states, "Please give me something to help with this."
Adolescent appears well-nourished, no distress. Oropharynx clear, mucous membranes moist, bilateral breath sounds clear Severe cystic acne noted to bilateral cheeks and forehead and flaking skin on chin
2 months ago:
- Heart rate 82/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- Blood pressure 100/72 mm Hg
- Weight 50 kg (110b)
Today:
- Heart rate 80/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- Blood pressure 106/74 mm Hg
- Weight 50 kg (110 lb)
2 months ago:
- Hemoglobin 10.8 g/dL (10 to 15.5 g/dL)
- Hematocrit 32% (32% to 44%)
- RBC count 8.5 x101L (4.0 to 5.5 x1013/L)
- WBC count 8,000/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)
- BUN 10 mg/dL (5 to 18 mg/dL)
- Creatinine 0.5 mg/dL (0.4 to 1 mg/dL)
- Cholesterol 140 mg/dL (120 to 200 mg/dL)
- Urine hCG negative
Today:
- Urine hCG negative
2 months ago:
- Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID
- Tretinoin cream 0.05% apply topically at bedtime
Today:
- Isotretinoin 10 mg PO BID x 4 weeks
2 months ago:
- Start doxycycline.
- Start topical tretinoin cream.
- Educate the adolescent on potential side effects.
- Check urine hCG. Return in 2 months for follow-up.
Today:
- Stop doxycycline.
- Stop topical tretinoin cream.
- Start isotretinoin.
- Educate the adolescent on potential side effects.
- Check urine hCG. Return in 1 month for follow-up.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent in the outpatient dermatologist's office.
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.
A nurse is providing education today on the newly-prescribed medication. The nurse recommends the adolescent notify the provider immediately if
Explanation
Rationale for correct choices:
- A change in mood: Mood changes, including depression, irritability, or suicidal thoughts, are serious adverse effects associated with isotretinoin use. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to these side effects, and any mood alterations during treatment warrant immediate provider notification.
- Decreased night vision: Isotretinoin can lead to visual disturbances, including decreased night vision, which may be sudden and irreversible. This adverse effect is rare but serious, and any signs of visual impairment should be reported promptly to prevent injury or permanent damage.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
- The development of dry eyes: Dry eyes are a common and expected side effect of isotretinoin, often due to mucous membrane dryness. While uncomfortable, it is not typically dangerous and can usually be managed with lubricating eye drops or supportive care without immediate provider contact.
- Dry mouth: Dry mouth occurs frequently with isotretinoin due to its drying effects on mucosal surfaces. It is bothersome but not dangerous, and clients can manage it with increased fluid intake and sugar-free lozenges. It doesn’t require urgent medical attention unless severe.
- Nausea: Nausea is not a common or concerning side effect of isotretinoin. If persistent or severe, it may require evaluation, but it is not a priority symptom for immediate provider contact unless accompanied by other warning signs like abdominal pain or jaundice.
- Sunburn: Increased photosensitivity is an expected effect of isotretinoin, and clients should be advised to wear sunscreen and protective clothing. Sunburn, while uncomfortable, is not an emergency and does not require immediate medical consultation unless it becomes severe.
- Worsening of acne: An initial acne flare is a known and expected part of isotretinoin therapy as pores begin to purge. This typically improves after several weeks and does not indicate treatment failure or require immediate provider notification unless accompanied by signs of infection.
- Engagement in sexual activity: While not a symptom, sexual activity is significant for female clients due to isotretinoin's teratogenicity. However, since this client has a negative hCG and is not sexually active, this is part of routine risk counselling not an immediate concern unless pregnancy is possible.
0200:
Gravida 1, Para 0 at 39 weeks gestation. Presents with contractions occurring every 5 to 6 min, 45 to 60 seconds duration Cervical examination 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced. Admit to labor and delivery unit
0200:
Admitted to labor and delivery unit, reports pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10 with contractions. Cervix 4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, with membranes intact.
0230:
Client reports increasing discomfort with contractions. Cervix 5 cm dilated, 60% effaced, with membranes intact. Contractions occurring every 5 min, 45 to 60 seconds duration.
0300:
Epidural anesthesia initiated. Cervix 7 cm dilated, 70% effaced with membranes intact. Contractions occurring every 4 to 5 min 60 seconds duration.
0200:
- Temperature 36.9° C (98.4° F)
- Heart rate 86/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- BP 118/78 mm Hg
0230:
- Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)
- Heart rate 88/min
- Respiratory rate 20/min
- BP 120/80 mm Hg
0300:
- Temperature 37.1° C (98.8° F)
- Heart rate 90/min
- Respiratory rate 18/min
- BP 122/776 mm Hg
A nurse is caring for a client in active labor.
The nurse is assuming care for the client at 0305.
For each nursing action, click to specify if the nursing action is essential or contraindicated for the client.
Explanation
Rationale:
- Monitor for elevated temperature: Epidural anesthesia can mask symptoms of infection such as chorioamnionitis. Monitoring temperature helps detect early signs of infection or epidural-related complications.
- Assess for urinary retention: Epidural anesthesia often causes loss of bladder sensation, increasing the risk for urinary retention. Regular assessments are needed to determine when catheterization is required.
- Assist the client with ambulation: After epidural anesthesia, lower limb motor function may be impaired. Ambulation is unsafe due to the risk of falls and injury; bedrest is generally advised until full motor function returns.
- Inform the client to expect drowsiness: Drowsiness is not a typical side effect of epidural anesthesia; it may indicate systemic absorption or another issue. Encouraging drowsiness may mask concerning symptoms that need prompt evaluation.
- Encourage the client to turn from side to side: Repositioning helps maintain optimal uteroplacental perfusion and prevents hypotension caused by vena cava compression from aortocaval syndrome.
A nurse is admitting a client who is to undergo paracentesis for removal of ascitic fluid. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A charge nurse is concerned about a recent increase in facility-acquired catheter infections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include?
A nurse is caring for a client who has a spinal cord injury. Which of the following support devices should the nurse plan to use to prevent plantar flexion contractures?
A nurse is teaching a group of parents about expected development of gross motor skills during infancy. The nurse should teach that the following developmental tasks are expected to occur in what order? (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.)
A nurse is developing an in-service about personality disorders. Which of the following information should the nurse include when discussing borderline personality disorder?
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has cancer and a prescription for a fentanyl 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has schizophrenia and is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
A nurse in an emergency department is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A nurse is reporting a client's laboratory tests to the provider to obtain a prescription for the client's daily warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to report to obtain the prescription for the warfarin?
A nurse is teaching a client about skin cancer prevention. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as being the best source of potassium?
A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to a long-term rehabilitation facility following a below-the-knee amputation of the right leg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to protect the client's confidentiality?
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