RN Maternal Newborn 2023
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2023
Total Questions : 74
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreComplete the following statement.
The client is at risk of developing
Explanation
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and dehydration during pregnancy. The client's laboratory results show signs consistent with dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, such as a low potassium level (3.3 mEq/L) and an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level (28 mg/dL).
Additionally, the presence of ketones in the urine (not explicitly mentioned in the provided laboratory results but commonly associated with hyperemesis gravidarum) indicates that the body is breaking down fat for energy due to inadequate oral intake and dehydration.
These findings suggest that the client is experiencing significant fluid and electrolyte disturbances, which are commonly seen in hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, the client is at risk of developing hyperemesis gravidarum based on the laboratory results indicating dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
A nurse manager is revising a policy in the maternal unit to ensure proper identification of newborns. What should the nurse include in the policy?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Checking the newborn’s identification using the crib card is not the most reliable method. The crib card could be misplaced or switched accidentally.
Choice B rationale
Requiring visitors to wear an identification band does not directly ensure the proper identification of newborns. While it can enhance the security of the unit, it does not link the newborn to their correct parents.
Choice C rationale
Replacing the infant’s identification band after his name has been recorded is not the most effective method. The identification band should be placed on the newborn immediately after birth to prevent mix-ups.
Choice D rationale
Obtaining an imprint of the infant’s feet prior to taking him to the nursery is the correct answer. This method is a reliable way to identify newborns. The footprints, along with the mother’s fingerprints, are often taken within the first hour after birth. This can be used for identification throughout the hospital stay.
A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who just delivered a newborn weighing 4.5 kg (10 lb). Which of the following signs should the nurse recognize as a potential indication of hemorrhage?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A blood pressure of 88/40 mm Hg is significantly lower than the normal range, which could indicate hemorrhage. Hypotension is a common sign of significant blood loss.
Choice B rationale
Moderate rubra lochia is normal within the first few days postpartum and does not necessarily indicate hemorrhage.
Choice C rationale
A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range and does not indicate hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is within the normal range and does not indicate hemorrhage.
A postpartum nurse is caring for a client and their newborn.
Which of the following observations should indicate to the nurse that the client is in the taking-in phase of maternal role attainment?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Taking charge of all mothering tasks is more indicative of the “taking-hold” phase, which typically occurs a few days after birth.
Choice B rationale
Desiring privacy with the newborn is not specifically indicative of the “taking-in” phase.
Choice C rationale
Putting personal needs aside is not specifically indicative of the “taking-in” phase.
Choice D rationale
Reviewing the birth experience with others is indicative of the “taking-in” phase. During this phase, the new mother is often passive and somewhat dependent, and she may need to review her childbirth experience as a way to fully grasp her new role.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor.
Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to reassess the client?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Progressive sacral discomfort during contractions is a normal part of labor and does not necessarily require reassessment.
Choice B rationale
An urge to have a bowel movement during contractions could indicate that the baby’s head is descending into the birth canal. This could signal that the labor is progressing more quickly than expected, and the nurse should reassess the client.
Choice C rationale
Intense contractions lasting 45 to 60 seconds are a normal part of active labor and do not necessarily require reassessment.
Choice D rationale
A sense of excitement and warm, flushed skin are normal emotional and physiological responses to labor and do not necessarily require reassessment.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor.The nurse observes late decelerations of the fetal heart rate on the external fetal monitor.
After placing the client in a side-lying position, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Decreasing the rate of IV fluids would not address the issue of late decelerations, which are a sign of fetal hypoxia.
Choice B rationale
Elevating the client’s head would not address the issue of late decelerations.
Choice C rationale
Performing fetal scalp stimulation is used to assess fetal well-being when the tracing is nonreactive, not when late decelerations are present.
Choice D rationale
Administering oxygen via a face mask is the correct answer. This increases maternal oxygen saturation, which can help increase oxygen delivery to the fetus.
A nurse is administering a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer’s for a client who is in labor and has a prescription for spinal anesthesia.
Which of the following findings indicates that the IV bolus was effective?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The report of perineal pain as 0 on a scale of 0 to 10 is not directly related to the effectiveness of the IV bolus of lactated Ringer’s. Perineal pain is more associated with the birthing process and not with the administration of IV fluids.
Choice B rationale
Relief of pruritus is not a direct indication of the effectiveness of the IV bolus of lactated Ringer’s. Pruritus, or itching, can be a side effect of certain medications or a symptom of various conditions, but it is not typically associated with the administration of IV fluids.
Choice C rationale
While increased urinary output can be a sign of adequate hydration, it is not the primary indicator of the effectiveness of a bolus of lactated Ringer’s. Urinary output can be influenced by various factors, including kidney function and fluid intake, but a single instance of increased urinary output does not necessarily indicate that the IV bolus was effective.
Choice D rationale
The primary goal of administering a bolus of IV fluids like lactated Ringer’s in a client who is in labor and has a prescription for spinal anesthesia is to maintain or improve the client’s hemodynamic status, which includes maintaining a stable blood pressure. Therefore, a blood pressure reading of 110/70 mm Hg indicates that the IV bolus was effective.
A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is experiencing abruptio placentae. What findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Leukorrhea, or vaginal discharge, is a common occurrence in pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not a specific sign of abruptio placentae.
Choice B rationale
Hypertension can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, but it is not a direct sign of the condition.
Choice C rationale
Uterine tenderness is a common symptom of abruptio placentae. This condition, which involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, can cause the uterus to become irritable and sensitive to touch.
Choice D rationale
Fetal tachycardia can be a sign of fetal distress, which could be a result of various complications in pregnancy, including abruptio placentae. However, it is not a specific sign of abruptio placentae.
A nurse is caring for a newborn with jaundice who has a new prescription for phototherapy. What actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Applying hydrating lotion to the newborn’s skin prior to treatment is not recommended. The goal of phototherapy is to expose the newborn’s skin to light, and applying lotion could potentially interfere with the effectiveness of the treatment.
Choice B rationale
Providing the newborn with 15 mL glucose water after each feeding is not a standard part of phototherapy treatment. The newborn should continue to receive regular feedings, but additional glucose water is not typically necessary.
Choice C rationale
Turning the newborn every 4 hours is not sufficient during phototherapy. The newborn should be repositioned frequently, ideally every 2-3 hours, to expose all areas of the skin to the light.
Choice D rationale
It is important to protect the newborn’s eyes during phototherapy to prevent damage from the light. Therefore, the newborn’s eyes should be covered with special patches whenever the lights are on.
A nurse is assessing a newborn of a client who reported methadone use during pregnancy. What manifestations should the nurse expect the newborn to exhibit?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
An absent Moro reflex is not typically associated with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS), a condition that can occur in newborns exposed to opioids in utero.
Choice B rationale
A weak cry is a common symptom of NAS. Newborns with this syndrome often have high- pitched or weak cries.
Choice C rationale
Poor feeding is a symptom of NAS, but it is not the most specific symptom in this context.
Choice D rationale
A respiratory rate of 30/min is within the normal range for a newborn and is not indicative of NAS5.
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