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Ati rn capstone proctored comprehensive assessment exam A
Ati rn capstone proctored comprehensive assessment exam A
Total Questions : 77
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor.
The nurse is caring for a client following the insertion of an epidural. For each nursing intervention, click to specify if the intervention is essential or contraindicated for the client.
Explanation
Essential Interventions:
- Monitor fetal heart rate
- Administer ampicillin IV
- Place client in left lateral position
- Request a prescription for ephedrine
Contraindicated Intervention:
- Decrease the IV flow rate
Rationale:
- Monitor fetal heart rate (Essential): Epidural anesthesia can cause maternal hypotension, leading to decreased uteroplacental perfusion. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring ensures the fetus is tolerating labor well.
- Administer ampicillin IV (Essential): The client tested positive for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at 37 weeks, requiring prophylactic IV antibiotic administration during labor to prevent neonatal infection.
- Place client in left lateral position (Essential): This position improves venous return, enhances placental perfusion, and prevents hypotension caused by epidural anesthesia.
- Request a prescription for ephedrine (Essential): Epidural anesthesia can cause maternal hypotension, and ephedrine is a vasopressor that can help restore blood pressure if needed.
- Decrease the IV flow rate (Contraindicated): IV fluids should be maintained or increased to prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia. Reducing the IV rate could exacerbate hypotension and fetal distress.
A nurse in an emergency department (ED) is assessing a preschooler who has a fractured arm. For which of the following should the nurse further investigate as a warning sign of child maltreatment?
Explanation
A. The guardian wants to accompany the child from the ED to the radiology department. This is a typical parental response and does not indicate maltreatment. Parents often want to stay with their child for reassurance.
B. The guardian states the child fell off the swing in the backyard. This is a plausible explanation for an injury in a preschooler, though the consistency of the story with the injury should still be assessed.
C. The child was brought to the ED 2 days after the injury occurred. A delay in seeking medical care for a significant injury is a potential warning sign of child maltreatment and warrants further investigation.
D. The child cries loudly when their arm is moved or manipulated. Pain with movement is expected with a fracture and does not indicate maltreatment.
A nurse is inserting a short peripheral IV catheter for a client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Choose the client's dominant arm for IV access whenever possible. The nondominant arm is preferred to minimize interference with daily activities.
B. Select a site proximal to previous venipuncture sites. This is the appropriate action because using a site above a previous one ensures better vein integrity and reduces complications.
C. Initiate IV access on the palmar side of the client's wrist. This site should be avoided as it is more painful and increases the risk of nerve damage.
D. Insert a larger gauge IV catheter to prevent phlebitis. A smaller gauge catheter is preferred when possible, as larger catheters can increase the risk of vein irritation and phlebitis.
A nurse is caring for a client following a seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Apply restraints if the client is agitated. Restraints are not necessary and may increase distress. Post-seizure agitation should be managed with reassurance and monitoring.
B. Ambulate the client. This is unsafe because the client may be disoriented or weak, increasing the risk of falls. Rest and recovery should be prioritized.
C. Position the client on their side. This helps maintain an open airway, prevents aspiration, and facilitates secretion drainage, making it the priority intervention.
D. Raise all of the side rails on the client's bed. Raising all four side rails is considered a restraint. A safer environment should be maintained without unnecessary restriction.
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed RBCs. The client reports chills, headache, low-back pain, and a feeling of "tightness" in their chest. The nurse should identify that the client has developed which of the following types of transfusion reactions?
Explanation
A. Allergic. Symptoms of an allergic reaction to a blood transfusion typically include itching, rash, and hives rather than chills, headache, or low-back pain.
B. Acute hemolytic. This reaction occurs when the client receives incompatible blood, leading to red blood cell destruction. Symptoms include chills, headache, low-back pain, chest tightness, hypotension, and fever.
C. Bacterial. A bacterial transfusion reaction is usually caused by contaminated blood products and presents with fever, chills, hypotension, and possible sepsis. The described symptoms suggest a different reaction.
D. Febrile nonhemolytic. This reaction is more common and presents with fever, chills, and headache but does not typically include low-back pain or chest tightness, which are more indicative of an acute hemolytic reaction.
A nurse is preparing a client for a pelvic examination. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. Have the client hold their breath during the examination. This is not recommended, as slow, deep breathing helps the client relax and reduces discomfort.
B. Ensure that the client's bladder is full. The bladder should be emptied before the exam to enhance comfort and allow better access for the provider.
C. Instruct the client to bear down when the speculum is inserted. This helps relax the pelvic muscles and makes insertion easier, reducing discomfort.
D. Place the client in modified Sims' position. The lithotomy position is the correct positioning for a pelvic examination, not modified Sims'.
A nurse in a provider's office is talking with an older adult client who tells the nurse that they fear they are "aging badly" and feel "so useless." Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority?
Explanation
A. "Did anything in particular make you feel this way?" Understanding the cause of the client’s feelings is important, but assessing for immediate safety takes priority.
B. "Would you tell me more about the changes you see in your body?" Exploring the client’s perception of aging is useful, but it does not address potential risk for self-harm.
C. "Do you ever think about harming yourself?" This is the priority assessment question because feelings of worthlessness can indicate depression, which increases the risk of suicide in older adults. Assessing for self-harm ensures immediate safety.
D. "How long have you had these feelings of uselessness?" Identifying the duration of these feelings is relevant, but it is secondary to determining whether the client is at risk for self-harm.
A nurse performs a capillary blood glucose check for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and obtains a reading of 64 mg/dL on the glucometer. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
Explanation
A. Tachypnea. Rapid breathing is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than mild hypoglycemia.
B. Ketonuria. The presence of ketones in the urine occurs with prolonged hyperglycemia and DKA, not with hypoglycemia.
C. Warm skin. Hypoglycemia typically causes cool, clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, not warmth.
D. Nervousness. Low blood glucose triggers the release of epinephrine, leading to symptoms such as nervousness, tremors, and sweating.
A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia prior to administering the client's next dose of clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Explanation
A. Polyuria. Increased urination is not a common adverse effect of clozapine and does not require immediate reporting.
B. Fever. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition that suppresses white blood cell production. Fever may indicate infection, which requires immediate evaluation.
C. Diarrhea. Gastrointestinal symptoms can occur with clozapine but are not typically urgent unless severe or persistent.
D. Diaphoresis. Excessive sweating is a possible side effect but does not require immediate medical attention.
A nurse is teaching a client about using transdermal scopolamine to treat motion sickness. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. "Store unused patches in the refrigerator." Scopolamine patches should be stored at room temperature, not in the refrigerator.
B. "Apply the patch prior to traveling." The patch should be applied at least four hours before travel to allow time for absorption and effectiveness.
C. "Place the patch on your upper arm." The patch should be applied behind the ear, not on the upper arm, for optimal absorption.
D. "Replace a dislodged patch onto the same location." A new patch should be applied to a different area to prevent skin irritation.
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