Ati med surg respiratory exam
Ati med surg respiratory exam
Total Questions : 44
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is having difficulty using an incentive spirometer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
A. Clients should begin with manageable inhalation volumes and gradually increase them as their lung capacity improves. This approach helps to avoid fatigue and ensures the client becomes comfortable with the device.
B. Being too aggressive in increasing inhalation volumes can lead to discomfort, discourage use of the spirometer, and could result in ineffective deep breathing. It's important for clients to progress at a pace that feels comfortable to them.
C. This choice is inappropriate unless there is clear evidence that the spirometer is not functioning correctly. The focus should be on teaching the client how to use the device effectively rather than suggesting they switch devices prematurely.
D. While deep-breathing exercises are beneficial, they do not replace the use of an incentive spirometer. The spirometer is specifically designed to encourage deep breaths and improve lung expansion, which is especially important post-surgery or for individuals with respiratory issues.
A nurse is preparing to review discharge instructions with a client who has pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. Clients with pulmonary tuberculosis are contagious, especially in the initial stages of treatment. Wearing a mask helps reduce the risk of transmitting the infection to others, particularly in crowded settings or when in close contact with individuals who are immunocompromised.
B. While sputum cultures are important for monitoring the effectiveness of TB treatment, they are typically collected more frequently in the initial phases of treatment (usually monthly until the patient is declared non-infectious). Instructing the client to provide samples every 6 weeks may not adequately ensure ongoing monitoring of their condition.
C. Alcohol can interact negatively with many antituberculosis medications (such as isoniazid and
rifampin), increasing the risk of liver toxicity. It’s usually advised that patients avoid alcohol altogether during treatment for TB to ensure the effectiveness of the medications and minimize the risk of adverse effects.
D. Used tissues should be disposed of immediately in a sealed plastic bag or a designated biohazard container to minimize the risk of spreading TB germs. Storing soiled tissues in a paper bag is not an effective way to ensure safety and hygiene.
Which principle(s) would be important to teach a patient about the use of a steroid inhaler? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Explanation
A. Steroid inhalers are typically used as maintenance therapy and are not intended for as-needed (PRN) use. Patients should use them regularly as prescribed to manage their underlying condition, such as asthma or COPD.
B. Patients using steroid inhalers are at risk for oral thrush (fungal infection) due to the immunosuppressive effects of steroids. Frequent oral hygiene helps prevent this side effect by keeping the mouth clean and reducing fungal growth.
C. Rinsing the mouth and spitting after using a steroid inhaler helps to remove residual medication from the oral cavity, further reducing the risk of oral thrush and other side effects associated with steroid use.
D. When both types of inhalers are used, the bronchodilator should be taken first. This opens the airways and allows for better penetration and effectiveness of the steroid medication that follows.
E. Holding the breath after inhalation allows the medication to settle in the lungs, improving its effectiveness. A 10-second hold is generally recommended to maximize drug delivery to the airways.
Which patient(s) would be able to take an alpha-adrenergic decongestant safely? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
Explanation
A. Alpha-adrenergic decongestants can increase intraocular pressure, which can worsen glaucoma. Patients with this condition should generally avoid such medications.
B. Alpha-adrenergic decongestants can cause vasoconstriction and increase heart rate and blood pressure, potentially exacerbating heart disease or increasing the risk of cardiovascular events.
C. Alpha-adrenergic decongestants can cause urinary retention due to increased tone in the prostatic and bladder neck musculature. This may worsen symptoms in patients with prostatic hypertrophy.
D. A young woman with allergic rhinitis is generally a suitable candidate for alpha-adrenergic decongestants. If she does not have any other contraindications (like high blood pressure or heart disease), she can safely use these medications for symptomatic relief.
E. A young adult without any underlying health issues can typically take alpha-adrenergic decongestants to relieve cold symptoms. As long as he doesn’t have any contraindications, he should be able to use them safely.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is to start taking montelukast to treat asthma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Explanation
A. Unlike inhaled corticosteroids, montelukast does not carry the same risk for oral thrush or irritation, so rinsing the mouth is not a required practice. This statement does not indicate an understanding of the medication's proper use.
B. Montelukast is not intended for use as a rescue medication during an asthma attack. Instead, it is used as a preventive treatment taken daily to help control asthma symptoms over time. Clients should have a rescue inhaler (usually a short-acting beta-agonist) for acute attacks.
C. While some medications may necessitate sodium restriction, montelukast does not have specific dietary restrictions related to sodium intake. Therefore, this statement does not indicate an understanding of the medication.
D. Montelukast is typically taken once daily, and it is often recommended to take it in the evening for optimal effectiveness in controlling asthma symptoms. This indicates the client understands the appropriate timing and dosing of the medication.
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has emphysema. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
Explanation
A. A barrel chest is a common finding in emphysema due to the hyperinflation of the lungs, which causes the chest to become rounded and increase in anterior-posterior diameter.
B. While clubbing can occur in some chronic respiratory conditions (like cystic fibrosis or lung cancer), it is not a common finding in emphysema. Therefore, this finding is not expected in this condition.
C. Emphysema is more likely to lead to tachycardia (increased heart rate) due to the body’s response to chronic hypoxia and the increased work of breathing. Bradycardia would not typically be associated with emphysema.
D. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) is a hallmark symptom of emphysema. Patients often experience progressive shortness of breath, especially with exertion.
E. Patients with emphysema may exhibit shallow respirations due to the destruction of lung tissue and the resulting difficulty in fully expanding the lungs. They may adopt a breathing pattern that minimizes the work of breathing.
A client is receiving oxygen therapy via a nasal cannula. When the client asks the nurse why he needs to have oxygen tubing in his nose, which of the following explanations about the cannula should the nurse give him?
Explanation
A. Nasal cannulas deliver a low flow rate of oxygen, which means the concentration of oxygen delivered is not constant and can vary depending on the client's breathing rate and depth.
B. Nasal cannulas are designed to be worn continuously, and removing them can disrupt the delivery of oxygen and potentially worsen the client's condition.
C. Nasal cannulas are typically used to deliver low concentrations of oxygen, which is often sufficient for patients with mild to moderate respiratory conditions.
D. Nasal cannulas cannot deliver the highest concentration of oxygen possible. For patients who require higher concentrations of oxygen, other delivery methods, such as a face mask or mechanical ventilation, may be necessary.
Order: Prednisone 7.5 mg PO QID Available: Prednisone 2.5 mg tabs How much will you administer?
Explanation
Order: 7.5 mg of prednisone. Available: Prednisone 2.5 mg tablets.
Number of tablets = Available dose/Ordered dose 7.5mg/2.5mg
Number of tablets= 3
Therefore, you will administer 3 tablets of prednisone each time the medication is ordered (QID - four times a day).
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has lung cancer and is scheduled for a lobectomy. The nurse should instruct the client to expect the use of which of the following equipment postoperatively?
Explanation
A. After a lobectomy, a chest tube is commonly placed to help drain fluid or air from the pleural space, facilitating lung expansion and preventing complications such as pneumothorax or pleural effusion. It is a standard part of care following lung surgery.
B. EEG monitoring is used to measure electrical activity in the brain and is not typically associated with lung surgeries like a lobectomy. It would only be used in specific neurological assessments or surgeries, not as standard postoperative equipment for lung surgery.
C. CPM machines are generally used after joint surgeries, such as knee surgeries, to promote mobility and prevent stiffness. They are not used in lung surgery like a lobectomy, so this equipment is not relevant in this context.
D. A three-way urethral catheter is typically used for bladder irrigation or managing urinary output after certain urological surgeries, not lung surgeries. It is not a standard postoperative requirement for a client undergoing a lobectomy.
A nurse is assisting with teaching a client who has obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) about continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
A. CPAP therapy does not require an invasive ventilation tube. Instead, it uses a non-invasive mask that fits over the nose or mouth to deliver continuous positive airway pressure. Invasive ventilation is used in more severe cases and usually involves intubation, which is not applicable for standard CPAP use.
B. A standard CPAP device maintains a constant pressure throughout the breathing cycle. This means that the pressure during inhalation is the same as during exhalation. Some advanced devices (like BiPAP) can deliver different pressures for inhalation and exhalation, but this is not the case for a CPAP machine.
C. CPAP masks can come in various styles, but many are designed to cover the nose or both the nose and mouth. Proper placement of the mask is crucial for ensuring effective therapy and preventing air leaks.
D. The CPAP mask should fit snugly but comfortably on the face to prevent air leaks and ensure that the continuous positive airway pressure is effectively maintained. A loose fit may lead to ineffective therapy and discomfort.
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