HESI RN Fundamentals

Question 1: View

Exhibits

Chart Reviewed

For each statement, click to indicate whether the statement is true or false.

A. Hand washing only needs to be performed when exiting the client’s room. B. This client requires contact and droplet precautions. C. A gown and gloves should be worn any time there is potential for contact with secretions. D. A mask should always be worn when in the client’s room. E. This client would require a private room if admitted.

Explanation

Choice A reason: False: Hand washing should be performed not only when exiting the client's room but also before entering the room and after any direct contact with the client or potentially contaminated surfaces within the room.

Choice B reason: True : The client has been diagnosed with Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), which is a highly contagious virus. It can spread through droplets in the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, or by touching a surface that has the virus on it. Therefore, contact and droplet precautions are necessary.

Choice C reason: True: Gowns and gloves should be worn whenever there is a potential for contact with secretions, especially when dealing with a patient who has a contagious condition like RSV. This is part of standard precautions to prevent the spread of infection.

Choice D reason: True: A mask should always be worn when in the client's room because RSV can be spread through droplets in the air. This is part of droplet precautions.

Choice E reason: True: This client would require a private room if admitted because RSV is highly contagious. Isolation in a private room is one of the strategies used to prevent the spread of the virus.

Question 2: View

Exhibits

What other recommendations could the nurse give to help the patient have better sleep? Select all that apply.

A. Exercise in the evening. B. Watch television in bed to fall asleep. C. Take an analgesic before bed. D. Avoid alcohol in the evening. E. Try to go to bed and awaken at the same time every day. F. Avoid naps. G. Eat a heavy meal before bed.

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Exercising in the evening can actually be counterproductive for some people when it comes to sleep. While regular exercise is beneficial for overall health and can contribute to better sleep, doing it too close to bedtime can stimulate the body, making it harder to relax and fall asleep.

Choice B reason:
Watching television in bed is generally not recommended as part of good sleep hygiene. The light from the screen can interfere with the body's production of melatonin, the hormone that signals it's time to sleep, and engaging content can keep the brain alert rather than allowing it to wind down.

Choice C reason:
Taking an analgesic before bed is not a general recommendation for better sleep unless pain is a specific issue that is preventing sleep. It's important to address the root cause of insomnia rather than masking symptoms with medication.

Choice D reason:
Avoiding alcohol in the evening is a good practice for better sleep. Alcohol can disrupt the sleep cycle and lead to fragmented sleep, even though it may initially seem to help with falling asleep.

Choice E reason:
Going to bed and waking up at the same time every day helps to regulate the body's internal clock, or circadian rhythm, which can improve sleep quality. Consistency is key for this practice to be effective.

Choice F reason:
Avoiding naps, especially in the late afternoon or evening, can help ensure that you are sufficiently tired at bedtime. Napping can interfere with nighttime sleep if done too late in the day or for too long.

Choice G reason:
Eating a heavy meal before bed can lead to discomfort and indigestion, which can make it harder to fall asleep. It's best to have a light snack if needed and avoid large meals close to bedtime.

Question 3: View

Patient Data

Exhibits

Based on the trending heart rate and pain score, what should the nurse do? Select all that apply.

A. Assess for sources of pain other than the surgical site. B. Change to a behavioral pain scale. C. Give a dose of 2.5 mg of morphine. D. Refer to social work for drug-seeking behavior. E. Bring an opioid reversal agent to the bedside. F. Lead the client in guided imagery. G. Consult with the surgeon about the pain level. H. Helping the client walk around the room.

Explanation

Choice A reason:
The increase in heart rate from 78 to 118 beats per minute, along with the increase in pain rating from 3 to 8, suggests that the client may be experiencing pain from a source other than the surgical site. It is important to assess for other potential sources of pain to ensure comprehensive pain management.
Choice B reason:
Changing to a behavioral pain scale is not indicated in this scenario. The numerical pain scale is a standard and effective method for assessing pain levels, and there is no indication that the client has difficulty communicating her pain using this scale.
Choice C reason:
Given that the client's pain rating increased to 8, which is above the threshold of 4 on the pain scale, administering a dose of 2.5 mg of morphine as per the orders is appropriate to manage her pain.
Choice D reason:
Referring to social work for drug-seeking behavior is not supported by the information provided. The client's increased pain rating and heart rate suggest a legitimate need for pain management rather than drug-seeking behavior.
Choice E reason:
Bringing an opioid reversal agent to the bedside is not indicated unless there is a concern for opioid overdose, which is not suggested by the information provided.
Choice F reason:
While guided imagery can be a helpful adjunct for pain management, it is not the primary intervention needed at this time given the client's significant increase in pain and heart rate.
Choice G reason:
Consulting with the surgeon about the client's increased pain level is important to rule out any complications from the surgery and to discuss further pain management strategies.
Choice H reason:
Assisting the client to walk around the room may help in pain management and is part of the postoperative care plan to increase walking distance. However, it should be done cautiously considering the client's current pain level.

Question 4: View

The nurse is assessing a client's pain experience. Which nursing intervention is most effective in determining the severity of a client's pain?

A. Review the client's medical history and admission assessment. B. Compare the client's current vital signs to the admission baseline. C. Note how frequently doses of analgesics have been administered. D. Ask the client to describe the intensity of the pain being experienced.

Explanation

Choice A reason: While the client's medical history and admission assessment provide valuable information, they do not directly measure the current pain experience.

Choice B reason: Vital signs can indicate pain but are not a definitive measure of pain severity as they can be influenced by other factors.

Choice C reason: The frequency of analgesic administration may suggest the level of pain control but does not measure the current pain intensity experienced by the client.

Choice D reason: Asking the client to describe the intensity of the pain is the most direct and effective way to assess pain severity. Pain is subjective, and the client's self-report is considered the gold standard for pain assessment.

Question 5: View

Which explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log rolling technique for turning?

A. Using two or three people increases client safety. B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment. C. Turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage. D. Working together can decrease the risk of back injury to the nurses.

Explanation

Choice A reason: While using multiple people can increase safety, it is not the primary purpose of the log rolling technique.

Choice B reason: The log rolling technique is specifically designed to maintain straight spinal alignment, especially in patients with suspected spinal injuries, to prevent further injury.

Choice C reason: Reducing skin damage is a benefit of proper patient handling, but it is not the main reason for using the log rolling technique.

Choice D reason: Decreasing the risk of back injury to nurses is important, but the primary purpose of the log rolling technique is to protect the patient's spinal integrity.

Question 6: View

While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. B. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth. C. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading. D. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.

Explanation

Choice A reason: If the oxygen saturation remains stable during the procedure, it indicates that the suctioning is not adversely affecting the client's oxygenation, and the nurse can safely continue.

Choice B reason: Applying an oxygen mask is not necessary if the oxygen saturation is stable and within a safe range.

Choice C reason: Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is only necessary if there is a concern about the accuracy of the reading, not when the reading is stable.

Choice D reason: There is no need to stop suctioning if the oxygen saturation is stable at 94%, as this is within the acceptable range for most clients.

Question 7: View

When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative clear liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to consume? Select all that apply.

A. Oatmeal, cream of wheat, pureed liquid. B. Pureed beans, liquid protein supplements, milkshake. C. Pureed carrots, creamed soup, ice cream. D. Carbonated drinks, gelatin, broth. E. Water, tea, ice chips.

Explanation

Choice A reason: Oatmeal, cream of wheat, and pureed liquids are not clear liquids and are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet.
Choice B reason: Pureed beans, liquid protein supplements, and milkshakes are not considered clear liquids and should not be included in a clear liquid diet.
Choice C reason: Pureed carrots, creamed soup, and ice cream are not clear liquids because they are not transparent and cannot be consumed on a clear liquid diet.
Choice D reason: Carbonated drinks, gelatin, and broth are considered clear liquids because they are transparent and can be consumed on a clear liquid diet.
Choice E reason: Water, tea without milk or cream, and ice chips are clear liquids and are appropriate for a clear liquid diet.

Question 8: View

When performing blood pressure measurements to assess for orthostatic hypotension, which action should the nurse implement first?

A. Record the client's pulse rate and rhythm. B. Assist the client to stand at the bedside. C. Apply the blood pressure cuff securely. D. Position the client supine for a few minutes.

Explanation

Choice A reason: Recording the client's pulse rate and rhythm is part of the assessment, but it is not the first action to take when assessing for orthostatic hypotension.
Choice B reason: Assisting the client to stand is part of the assessment process, but it should be done after the initial blood pressure and pulse have been measured while the client is supine.
Choice C reason: Applying the blood pressure cuff securely is necessary for an accurate reading, but it is not the first step in the process of assessing for orthostatic hypotension.
Choice D reason: The first action is to position the client supine for a few minutes before taking the initial blood pressure and pulse measurements, as this provides a baseline for comparison when the client stands.

Question 9: View

The home health nurse is reviewing the personal care needs of an older adult client who lives alone. What client assessment finding(s) indicate(s) the need to assign an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to provide routine foot care and has the client's toenails? Select all that apply.

A. Shufling gait. B. Urinary incontinence. C. Syncope when bending. D. Hand tremors.

Explanation

The correct answer isChoice A, Choice C, and Choice D.

Choice A rationale:A shuffling gait can indicate mobility issues, making it difficult for the client to safely perform foot care and toenail clipping. This increases the risk of falls and injuries.

Choice B rationale:Urinary incontinence does not directly affect the ability to perform foot care or toenail clipping. It is more related to bladder control issues.

Choice C rationale:Syncope when bending suggests that the client may experience dizziness or fainting when bending over, making it unsafe for them to perform foot care and toenail clipping.

Choice D rationale:Hand tremors can make it challenging for the client to handle nail clippers or other tools needed for foot care, increasing the risk of injury.

Question 10: View

A small, round raised area appears under the client's skin as the nurse administers an intradermal medication. Which action should the nurse take?

A. Document the site where the medication was given. B. Notify the healthcare provider of the allergic response. C. Elevate the area and apply light pressure over the site. D. Apply a cold pack to the area for twenty minutes.

Explanation

Choice A reason: The appearance of a small, round raised area, known as a wheal, is a normal reaction to an intradermal injection and should be documented.

Choice B reason: This is not an allergic response but a normal reaction to an intradermal injection, so there is no need to notify the healthcare provider.

Choice C reason: There is no need to elevate the area or apply pressure as the raised area is a normal reaction to the medication being correctly placed in the dermis.

Choice D reason: Applying a cold pack is not necessary for a normal reaction to an intradermal injection.