PN Fundamentals 2023 Exam 4
ATI PN Fundamentals 2023 Exam 4
Total Questions : 70
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreWhich of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of this technique?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Guided imagery involves the use of mental visualization to relieve stress and manage pain. By thinking about a peaceful setting, such as the client’s grandfather's farm, they can divert attention from the pain and enter a state of relaxation. This technique helps reduce pain perception by engaging the mind in positive, soothing imagery, which can lead to decreased stress and muscle tension.
Choice B rationale
Listening to music is a distraction technique rather than guided imagery. While it can help take the mind off pain, it does not involve the mental visualization process that is central to guided imagery. Music can help by shifting attention away from pain and providing a calming effect through auditory stimulation.
Choice C rationale
Focused breathing is a relaxation technique that can help manage pain through controlled breathing patterns. It helps reduce anxiety and physical tension by focusing on slow, deep breaths. However, it does not involve the imaginative visualization that characterizes guided imagery.
Choice D rationale
Noticing the sensation of muscle tension is part of body awareness techniques, which involve paying attention to and understanding bodily sensations. While this can help in managing pain by addressing muscle tension, it is different from the mental visualization process of guided imagery.
In which of the following situations can the nurse disclose health information without the client's written consent?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Health information should not be disclosed to an employer for pre-employment screening without the client's consent, as it violates privacy regulations and the client's right to confidentiality. Such disclosures could lead to discrimination or bias in employment decisions.
Choice B rationale
Disclosing health information to a family member without the client's consent is a breach of confidentiality. The client must provide explicit permission, unless the situation involves an immediate risk to the client's or others' safety, which is not indicated here.
Choice C rationale
Sharing health information with a medical interpreter service on behalf of a client is permissible, as it facilitates communication between the client and healthcare providers. This action supports the client's care and ensures accurate understanding of medical information, making it an exception to the confidentiality rule.
Choice D rationale
Disclosing health information to an insurance agency regarding a life insurance policy requires the client's consent. It involves sharing sensitive information that could affect policy terms and premiums. Without consent, this disclosure would breach confidentiality laws.
A home health nurse is visiting a client who has advanced Alzheimer's disease.
The client's partner states, "I miss being able to go places with my friends.”. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Telling the client's partner to discuss their feelings when not feeling overwhelmed is dismissive. It does not address their current emotional state or offer support. This response can make the partner feel unheard and may not provide immediate relief or understanding.
Choice B rationale
Suggesting that the partner take the client with them when going out may not be practical, especially considering the advanced stage of Alzheimer's disease. This response can show a lack of understanding of the challenges faced by caregivers of individuals with severe cognitive impairment.
Choice C rationale
Asking the partner to share more about their expectations opens a dialogue and shows empathy. It allows the nurse to understand the partner’s feelings and needs better, providing an opportunity for supportive and individualized advice.
Choice D rationale
While expressing understanding and sharing a personal experience might build rapport, it can shift the focus away from the partner's feelings and needs. The nurse should remain client-centered, providing support specific to the partner's situation rather than comparing it to their own.
A nurse is recording the intake and output (I&O) for a client.
The client consumed 8 oz of milk, 10 oz of water, 4 oz of gelatin, 1 egg, 1 piece of bacon, and 2 biscuits.
Which volume should the nurse record on the I&O?
Explanation
Step 1: Convert all liquid intake to mL: 8 oz of milk = 8 oz × 30 mL/oz = 240 mL 10 oz of water = 10 oz × 30 mL/oz = 300 mL 4 oz of gelatin = 4 oz × 30 mL/oz = 120 mL
Step 2: Sum the liquid intake: Total intake = 240 mL + 300 mL + 120 mL = 660 mL
The nurse should record 660 mL on the I&O.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Reviewing the client's photograph in the medical record is an effective method to ensure accurate identification. This practice aligns with patient safety protocols and minimizes the risk of medication errors by confirming the patient's identity through a visual match with a documented image.
Choice B rationale
Requesting an assistive personnel to identify the client might be unreliable if the personnel is unfamiliar with the client or makes an error. This approach does not provide a secure verification method and could lead to mistakes.
Choice C rationale
Asking the client to state their room number is not reliable since a client with advanced dementia may not remember their room number accurately. This method does not ensure proper identification and can lead to errors.
Choice D rationale
Having the client state their phone number is inappropriate for clients with advanced dementia, who may struggle to recall such information. This method is not a secure or accurate way to verify identity.
Which of the following should the nurse identify as an example of exaggerated grief?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A repressed grief response, where an individual avoids expressing their grief, is considered delayed grief, not exaggerated grief. This can manifest as physical symptoms or psychological issues later on.
Choice B rationale
Grief that begins following a terminal diagnosis is anticipatory grief, which is a normal response as individuals begin to process the impending loss. It prepares them emotionally for the eventual death.
Choice C rationale
Exaggerated grief involves intense, prolonged, and often harmful reactions such as self-destructive behaviors. This type of grief can significantly impair a person's ability to function and may require professional intervention.
Choice D rationale
A grief response triggered by a secondary loss (e.g., loss of job or home) is known as cumulative grief. While it complicates the grieving process, it does not inherently lead to the exaggerated, self-destructive behaviors seen in exaggerated grief.
Which of the following actions by the AP requires intervention by the nurse?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Using a quick-release tie to secure the restraint is standard practice as it ensures the restraint can be removed quickly in case of an emergency, ensuring patient safety.
Choice B rationale
Tying the restraint to the bed frame is appropriate because it prevents the client from removing the restraint independently while still allowing for quick-release if necessary. It ensures the client's safety by securing the restraint to a stable part of the bed.
Choice C rationale
Placing the restraint across the client's chest requires intervention because it can restrict breathing and cause serious harm. This practice is unsafe and contraindicated in restraint use guidelines.
Choice D rationale
Applying the restraint over the client's gown is correct as it provides a barrier between the skin and the restraint, reducing the risk of skin irritation or injury.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of infection control principles?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Using disinfectant to clean the blood pressure cuff after use is an appropriate infection control measure. It reduces the risk of cross-contamination between clients by ensuring medical equipment is sanitized.
Choice B rationale
Double-bagging a client's linens each day is not necessary unless the linens are heavily soiled or contaminated with pathogens. Routine double-bagging is not an effective infection control practice and is resource-intensive.
Choice C rationale
Wearing sterile gloves when bathing a client who is incontinent is unnecessary. Non-sterile gloves are sufficient for this task, and sterile gloves should be reserved for surgical or invasive procedures to maintain sterility.
Choice D rationale
Rinsing contaminants from a bedpan with hot water can create aerosols that spread pathogens. Proper protocol involves cleaning and disinfecting the bedpan with appropriate solutions to ensure infection control. .
A nurse is preparing to provide tracheostomy care to a client who has a chronic tracheostomy.
In which order should the nurse complete the following steps?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Unlocking and removing the inner cannula is the first step. It allows access to the inner cannula for cleaning and ensures that the tracheostomy tube remains patent.
Choice B rationale
Pouring 2.54 cm (1 in) of 0.9% sodium chloride solution into the sterile basin provides the necessary solution for cleansing the inner cannula and stoma site, helping to maintain sterility and prevent infection.
Choice C rationale
Scrubbing the inside and outside of the inner cannula with a small brush ensures that any mucus or debris is removed, reducing the risk of infection and maintaining clear airways.
Choice D rationale
Wiping the inside of the inner cannula with a folded pipe cleaner helps to remove any remaining debris or solution, ensuring that the inner cannula is thoroughly cleaned.
Choice E rationale
Cleansing the stoma site with 0.9% sodium chloride solution helps to remove any mucus or debris from the site, maintaining hygiene and reducing the risk of infection.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Avoid placing toilet tissue in the bedpan after defecation to prevent contamination of the stool specimen. Toilet tissue can introduce foreign substances that may interfere with lab results.
Choice B rationale
Urinate after the specimen collection is incorrect because urine can contaminate the stool sample. The client should urinate before collecting the stool specimen to avoid mixing the two.
Choice C rationale
Placing 1.3 cm (0.5 in) of formed stool into a culture tube is insufficient for a proper stool sample. Typically, a larger sample is needed to ensure enough material is available for testing.
Choice D rationale
Keeping the specimen in a warm area is incorrect because stool samples should be kept in a cool environment to preserve the integrity of the specimen until it can be analyzed.
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