A. Hepatitis is a concern for individuals with HIV, but it is not specifically indicated by a low CD4-T-cell count.
B. A CD4-T-cell count of 150/mm³ indicates severe immunosuppression, making the client highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like tuberculosis, which is common in individuals with HIV.
C. While gonorrhea is a risk for sexually active individuals, it is not specifically related to the low CD4-T-cell count.
D. Chlamydia is also a sexually transmitted infection, but similar to gonorrhea, it is not directly linked to the immunocompromised state indicated by the CD4-T-cell count.

1. Assessing the client's airway is the priority to determine if there is any obstruction or compromise due to swelling.

2. Calling the emergency response team ensures that additional medical help is on the way if the situation worsens.

3. Applying high-flow oxygen is critical to address potential hypoxia from airway swelling.

4. Initiating IV access is necessary for administering medications.

5. Administering IV epinephrine is essential to counteract severe allergic reactions, such as angioedema.

6. Administering IV antihistamines can help alleviate symptoms but is secondary to the immediate interventions for airway management and epinephrine administration.

A. Fusion Inhibitors work by preventing the virus from entering the host's cells but do not inhibit RNA from forming DNA.
B. Integrase Inhibitors block the integration of viral DNA into the host's DNA but do not directly inhibit the reverse transcription process.
C. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs) inhibit reverse transcriptase, the enzyme responsible for converting viral RNA into DNA, thus directly targeting this crucial stage of the HIV lifecycle.
D. Protease Inhibitors inhibit the protease enzyme involved in the maturation of the virus but do not affect the reverse transcription process.

A. A phlebotomist collecting blood from clients who have HIV is at the greatest risk due to the potential for exposure to infected blood, especially if safety precautions are not properly followed.
B. A nurse working for an insurance company collecting urine samples is at a lower risk, as urine is not a primary mode of HIV transmission.
C. A personal trainer working with a client who has HIV may be at risk if there are open wounds, but the risk is less compared to healthcare workers directly handling blood.
D. An occupational therapist working with a client who has HIV may have some exposure risk, but it is significantly lower than that of a phlebotomist who handles blood samples.

A. Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction and is a critical sign of anaphylaxis requiring immediate intervention to secure the airway.
B. Hypotension is a serious condition that occurs during anaphylaxis, but the priority is to address the airway obstruction first.
C. Urticaria (hives) is a common symptom of an allergic reaction but is not life-threatening and can be addressed after more severe symptoms.
D. Vomiting may occur during anaphylaxis but is not the most urgent finding when airway compromise is present.

A. Cortisol levels are not directly affected by furosemide; monitoring for adrenal function is not a priority.
B. Bicarbonate levels are not specifically monitored for clients on furosemide; this medication's main effect does not relate directly to bicarbonate balance.
C. Albumin levels are not primarily affected by furosemide; although low albumin can affect fluid status, it is not the critical monitoring focus.
D. Potassium levels should be monitored because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a common and significant side effect due to increased renal excretion of potassium.

A. While knowing the location of the assault may be relevant for police reports, it does not directly pertain to the client’s health and potential exposure to HIV.
B. Permission to contact the police is important for legal reasons, but the priority is to address the client's health needs first.
C. Identifying the individual who assaulted the client is critical for assessing the risk of HIV exposure and determining the need for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP). This question directly impacts the client’s immediate health care.
D. Understanding the day and time of the assault is useful for legal documentation but is less critical than assessing potential exposure to HIV.

A. Administering hypertonic saline (3% NaCl) is appropriate for treating severe hyponatremia, as it helps to raise sodium levels safely. Restricting water intake is also necessary to prevent further dilution of sodium.
B. Fluid restriction with a loop diuretic may not be effective in this scenario and can worsen the hyponatremia by causing further fluid loss without addressing the sodium levels.
C. Isotonic saline is not indicated for correcting severe hyponatremia, and encouraging oral fluid intake could exacerbate the condition.
D. Increasing oral sodium intake is not sufficient for immediate correction of severe hyponatremia and does not address the acute nature of the client’s symptoms.

A. The conversion of RNA into DNA is a critical step in the HIV lifecycle, but it does not directly lead to opportunistic infections; instead, it allows the virus to integrate into the host’s genome.
B. Having reverse transcriptase enzyme is a characteristic of retroviruses like HIV that facilitates replication, but it does not cause opportunistic infections directly.
C. HIV containing a single strand of genetic material is a feature of its classification as a retrovirus but is not related to the risk of opportunistic infections.
D. The ability of HIV to target and destroy CD4 lymphocytes is the key reason for opportunistic infections. CD4 cells are crucial for the immune response, and their depletion leads to immunosuppression, making the client susceptible to infections that would not typically affect an individual with a healthy immune system.

A. Flushing of the skin is not typical in hypovolemic shock; rather, the skin is usually cool and clammy due to vasoconstriction.
B. Oliguria, or decreased urine output, is expected in hypovolemic shock as the kidneys receive less blood flow, leading to reduced urine production.
C. Bradypnea is not a common finding in hypovolemic shock; instead, tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is typically observed due to compensatory mechanisms for hypoxia and acidosis.
D. Hypertension is not expected in hypovolemic shock; instead, the client typically presents with hypotension due to decreased blood volume and pressure.