Ati med surg RN Helene fuld college nurs 221A exam
Ati med surg RN Helene fuld college nurs 221A exam
Total Questions : 40
Showing 10 questions Sign up for morePhenytoin (Dilantin) suspension 200 mg is prescribed for a client with epilepsy.The suspension contains 125 mg/5 ml. How much solution should the nurse administer? Record your answer using a whole number.
Explanation
Step 1: Determine the desired dose in mL.
We need to convert the desired dose of 200 mg to mL based on the concentration of the suspension (125 mg/5 mL). We can achieve this using the following proportion:
Desired dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) = Volume (mL) Step 2: Perform the calculation.
Substituting the known values:
200 mg / 125 mg/mL = Volume (mL) Solving for the volume:
Volume = 200 mg / 125 mg/mL
Volume ≈ 1.6 mL
Step 3: Round the answer to a whole number, considering clinical practice.
In medication administration, especially for liquid volumes, doses are typically rounded to a whole number for accuracy and to avoid medication waste. Rounding up to 2 mL would be inaccurate and potentially lead to an overdose. Therefore, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 1 mL.
Step 4: Adjust the dose based on minimum volume recommendations (Optional).
Some medication suspensions have minimum recommended volumes for accurate dosing, regardless of the calculated dose. Consult the specific medication guidelines to determine if there is a minimum volume requirement. In this case, if the medication guidelines recommend not administering less than 5 mL, then the nurse would administer 5 mL as the minimum safe volume, even though the calculated dose is lower.
Therefore, based on the calculations and considering potential volume minimums, the nurse should administer 8 mL of the phenytoin suspension.
A nurse is discussing gout with a patient who is concerned about developing the disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? Select all that applies.
Explanation
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a significant risk factor for gout. This is because CVD often coexists with other conditions that can elevate uric acid levels, such as hypertension, obesity, and chronic kidney disease. Additionally, some medications used to treat CVD, such as thiazide diuretics, can also increase uric acid levels.
Research has shown that people with CVD have a 2-3 times higher risk of developing gout compared to those without CVD.
The mechanisms linking CVD and gout are complex and not fully understood, but they likely involve shared pathways of inflammation and endothelial dysfunction.
Choice D rationale:
Diuretic use, particularly thiazide diuretics, is a well-established risk factor for gout. These medications work by increasing the excretion of fluids and electrolytes from the body, which can also lead to a decrease in the excretion of uric acid.
This can result in a buildup of uric acid in the blood, which can then crystallize in joints and cause gout attacks.
The risk of gout associated with diuretic use is dose-dependent, meaning that higher doses of diuretics are associated with a higher risk of gout.
Choice A rationale:
Depression has not been consistently shown to be an independent risk factor for gout. Some studies have suggested a possible link between depression and gout, but others have not found any association. More research is needed to clarify the relationship between these two conditions.
Choice B rationale:
Deep sleep deprivation has not been studied as a risk factor for gout. There is currently no evidence to suggest that it is directly associated with an increased risk of developing the disease.
What is the nurse's primary consideration when caring for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Pain management: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic inflammatory disease that causes pain, stiffness, swelling, and fatigue in the joints. Pain is often the most debilitating symptom of RA, and it can significantly impact a person's quality of life.
Therefore, the nurse's primary consideration is to ensure the client's comfort by effectively managing their pain. This may involve using a variety of interventions, such as:
Administering pain medications as prescribed Applying heat or cold therapy
Using assistive devices to reduce joint strain
Teaching the client about pain management techniques, such as relaxation exercises and pacing activities
Promoting rest and sleep: Rest and sleep are essential for healing and reducing inflammation. The nurse can encourage the client to rest during the day and to get enough sleep at night.
Creating a comfortable environment: The nurse can help to create a comfortable environment for the client by adjusting the room temperature, providing soft bedding and pillows, and reducing noise and distractions.
Providing emotional support: RA can be a challenging disease to live with, and it can take a toll on a person's emotional well- being. The nurse can provide emotional support by listening to the client's concerns, offering reassurance, and encouraging them to express their feelings.
Choice B rationale:
Motivation is important: While motivation is important for self-management of RA, it is not the primary consideration for the nurse. The nurse's focus is on providing comfort and addressing the client's immediate needs. Once the client's pain and other symptoms are managed, the nurse can then work with the client to develop a plan for managing their RA long-term. This may include providing education about the disease, teaching self-care strategies, and encouraging the client to participate in activities that promote physical and emotional well-being.
Choice C rationale:
Surgery may be an option: Surgery may be an option for some clients with RA, but it is not the primary consideration for the nurse. Surgery is typically considered only after other treatment options have failed to control the client's symptoms.
Choice D rationale:
Education is important: Education is an important part of managing RA, but it is not the primary consideration for the nurse. The nurse's focus is on providing comfort and addressing the client's immediate needs. Once the client's pain and other symptoms are managed, the nurse can then provide education about the disease and its management.
A nurse is completing discharge instructions with a client following an acute onset of gout. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the treatment regimen?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A high-purine diet is not recommended for clients with gout. Purines are substances found in certain foods, such as red meat, organ meats, seafood, and beer. When the body breaks down purines, it produces uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product that can build up in the blood and cause gout attacks.
Choice B rationale:
Aspirin is not typically recommended for clients with gout. In fact, aspirin can sometimes worsen gout symptoms by increasing uric acid levels in the blood.
Choice C rationale:
Limiting alcohol intake is a key part of the treatment regimen for gout. Alcohol can increase uric acid levels in the blood and trigger gout attacks.
Choice D rationale:
Limiting fluid intake is not recommended for clients with gout. In fact, it is important for clients with gout to stay well- hydrated to help flush uric acid out of the body.
A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who has AIDS and a significantly decreased CD4 T-cell count. The nurse should recognize that the client is at risk for developing which of the following infectious oral conditions?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. It commonly affects the mouth, causing white patches on the tongue, inner cheeks, gums, or tonsils.
Individuals with AIDS often have weakened immune systems due to a decreased CD4 T-cell count. This makes them more susceptible to opportunistic infections like candidiasis.
The fungal infection can spread to the esophagus, causing difficulty swallowing, or even to the bloodstream, leading to more serious complications.
Choice B rationale:
Xerostomia refers to dry mouth. It can be caused by various factors, including medications, salivary gland dysfunction, or radiation therapy. While it can occur in individuals with AIDS, it's not directly linked to a decreased CD4 T-cell count.
Choice C rationale:
Halitosis, or bad breath, can have multiple causes, including poor oral hygiene, gum disease, or digestive issues. It's not specifically associated with AIDS or a decreased CD4 T-cell count.
Choice D rationale:
Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums, often caused by plaque buildup. It's a common condition, but it's not directly linked to AIDS or a decreased CD4 T-cell count.
A nurse is completing discharge teaching to a patient who has seizures and received a vagal nerve stimulator to decrease seizure activity. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Magnet activation: Placing a magnet over the implantable device activates an on-demand feature of the VNS, delivering extra stimulation to the vagus nerve. This can potentially disrupt or shorten a seizure, especially when used at the onset of an aura (a warning sign that a seizure may be imminent).
Patient empowerment: Teaching the patient how to use the magnet provides them with a sense of control and a way to actively manage their seizures. It can reduce anxiety and improve quality of life.
Choice B rationale:
Microwave safety: While there's no definitive evidence that microwaves directly interfere with VNS devices, manufacturers generally recommend avoiding close or prolonged exposure to microwaves as a precaution. Specific guidelines may vary, but they often suggest keeping a distance of at least 15-20 inches from microwaves. The statement in Choice B about 12,000 watts or less is inaccurate and misleading.
Choice C rationale:
CT scans with contrast: There's no contraindication for patients with VNS to undergo CT scans with contrast. The device is designed to withstand common imaging procedures.
Choice D rationale:
Pain management: Burst catheters are typically used for pain management after surgery or during childbirth. They have no direct relevance to VNS therapy or seizure management.
A nurse is teaching a female client who has a new diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse should recognize the need for further teaching when the client identifies which of the following as a factor that can exacerbate SLE?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Exercise.
Choice A: Exercise Exercise is generally beneficial for overall health and is not typically a factor that exacerbates systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). In fact, regular physical activity can be an important part of the overall treatment plan for individuals with SLE. It can boost energy levels, improve joint flexibility, and help alleviate stress. Therefore, if a patient with SLE identifies exercise as a factor that can exacerbate their condition, it indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice B: Diet Certain diets can potentially trigger or worsen SLE symptoms. For instance, a chemical found in alfalfa may trigger lupus symptoms, so patients may want to avoid eating alfalfa sprouts or taking supplements with alfalfa. Therefore, diet is a correct factor that can exacerbate SLE.
Choice C: Sunlight Exposure to sunlight can trigger or worsen SLE symptoms. For those with lupus, being in the sun can lead to symptoms like skin rashes, itching, burning, joint pain, weakness, and fatigue. In certain cases, it can also result in damage to internal organs. Therefore, sunlight is a correct factor that can exacerbate SLE.
Choice D: Infection Infections can trigger or worsen SLE symptoms. Rates of infections are higher among persons with SLE compared with the general population. Therefore, infection is a correct factor that can exacerbate SLE.
The client tells the nurse, "I am about to have a seizure." Which of the actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Loosening the patient's clothing around the neck and chest promotes easier breathing during the seizure. It also prevents potential injury from constrictive clothing that could restrict movement or circulation.
Choice B rationale:
Easing the patient to the floor if they are standing helps to prevent falls and injuries that could occur due to loss of consciousness and muscle control during the seizure. It's crucial to guide the patient gently to the floor to avoid abrupt movements that could trigger or worsen the seizure.
Choice C rationale:
Restraining the patient during a seizure is not recommended as it can cause harm. Attempting to restrain a patient's movements during a seizure can lead to muscle strains, joint injuries, or even fractures. It can also increase anxiety and agitation, potentially prolonging the seizure.
Choice D rationale:
Protecting the patient's mouth with a padded tongue blade is not necessary and can even be dangerous. It was once a common practice, but it's now discouraged as it can cause oral injuries, obstruct the airway, or induce vomiting.
Choice E rationale:
Providing privacy helps to protect the patient's dignity and reduce any potential embarrassment during the seizure. It also creates a calmer and less stimulating environment, which can be beneficial in managing the seizure.
What intervention should the nurse identify as a priority for a client with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to HIV related pneumonia?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Coughing and deep breathing are essential for mobilizing and removing secretions from the airways, which is crucial for improving airway clearance in patients with pneumonia. These techniques help to loosen mucus and bring it up from the lungs, allowing it to be expelled through coughing.
Hydration maintenance is also critical because it helps to thin secretions, making them easier to cough up. Adequate hydration helps to keep mucus moist and less sticky, which promotes easier expectoration.
Choice B rationale:
Keeping the head of the bed elevated can help to improve oxygenation and reduce the work of breathing, but it does not directly address the issue of airway clearance. It may be a helpful adjunct intervention, but it's not the priority for this specific nursing diagnosis.
Choice C rationale:
Preparation for insertion of a tracheostomy tube is a more invasive intervention that may be necessary in severe cases of airway obstruction, but it is not the first-line intervention for ineffective airway clearance related to pneumonia. It would be considered if other measures fail to maintain adequate ventilation.
Choice D rationale:
Providing supplemental oxygen can help to improve oxygenation in patients with pneumonia, but it does not directly address the issue of airway clearance. It's important to support oxygenation, but it's not the primary intervention to clear secretions.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following values should give the nurse the best indication of the client's renal function?
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Serum creatinine is a waste product that is produced by muscle metabolism and is normally excreted by the kidneys.
When kidney function is impaired, creatinine levels in the blood increase, making it a sensitive and specific indicator of renal function.
It is considered one of the most reliable markers for assessing kidney function and is routinely used to screen for and monitor kidney disease.
Choice B rationale:
Serum sodium is an electrolyte that is regulated by the kidneys, but it is not a direct measure of renal function. Sodium levels can be affected by various factors, including fluid intake, medications, and hormonal imbalances.
While abnormal sodium levels can sometimes be a sign of kidney dysfunction, they can also occur due to other conditions, making it less specific as an indicator of renal function.
Choice C rationale:
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is another waste product that is produced by the breakdown of proteins and is normally excreted by the kidneys.
However, BUN levels can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as dietary protein intake, dehydration, and gastrointestinal bleeding.
This makes BUN less specific than serum creatinine as a marker of renal function.
Choice D rationale:
Urine-specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, which can provide some information about kidney function.
However, it is not as sensitive or specific as serum creatinine.
Urine-specific gravity can be affected by factors such as fluid intake and hydration status, which can make it less reliable as an indicator of renal function.
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