A nurse is discussing gout with a patient who is concerned about developing the disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? Select all that applies.
Depression
Deep sleep deprivation
Cardiovascular disease
Diuretic use
Correct Answer : C,D
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is a significant risk factor for gout. This is because CVD often coexists with other conditions that can elevate uric acid levels, such as hypertension, obesity, and chronic kidney disease. Additionally, some medications used to treat CVD, such as thiazide diuretics, can also increase uric acid levels.
Research has shown that people with CVD have a 2-3 times higher risk of developing gout compared to those without CVD.
The mechanisms linking CVD and gout are complex and not fully understood, but they likely involve shared pathways of inflammation and endothelial dysfunction.
Choice D rationale:
Diuretic use, particularly thiazide diuretics, is a well-established risk factor for gout. These medications work by increasing the excretion of fluids and electrolytes from the body, which can also lead to a decrease in the excretion of uric acid.
This can result in a buildup of uric acid in the blood, which can then crystallize in joints and cause gout attacks.
The risk of gout associated with diuretic use is dose-dependent, meaning that higher doses of diuretics are associated with a higher risk of gout.
Choice A rationale:
Depression has not been consistently shown to be an independent risk factor for gout. Some studies have suggested a possible link between depression and gout, but others have not found any association. More research is needed to clarify the relationship between these two conditions.
Choice B rationale:
Deep sleep deprivation has not been studied as a risk factor for gout. There is currently no evidence to suggest that it is directly associated with an increased risk of developing the disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a blood test that detects the presence of antinuclear antibodies, which are autoantibodies that target the body's own tissues. These antibodies are often present in people with autoimmune diseases, including rheumatoid arthritis.
While a positive ANA test does not definitively diagnose rheumatoid arthritis, it can support a diagnosis when considered alongside other clinical findings and laboratory tests.
Choice B rationale:
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a blood test that measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood. Urea nitrogen is a waste product that is produced when the body breaks down proteins.
BUN levels can be elevated in people with kidney disease, dehydration, or certain other medical conditions. However, BUN is not specifically used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice C rationale:
Urinalysis is a test that examines the urine for various substances, including cells, bacteria, and chemicals.
It can be used to diagnose a variety of conditions, including urinary tract infections, kidney disease, and diabetes. However, urinalysis is not typically used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice D rationale:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a blood test that measures how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube.
A high ESR can indicate inflammation in the body.
ESR is often elevated in people with rheumatoid arthritis, as it is a marker of inflammation.
Choice E rationale:
White blood cell count (WBC) is a blood test that measures the number of white blood cells in the blood. White blood cells are part of the immune system and help fight infection.
A high WBC count can indicate an infection or inflammation.
WBC count can be elevated in people with rheumatoid arthritis, as it is a marker of inflammation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fever is the most reliable early indicator of infection in a client with low WBC because it is a direct physiologic response to the presence of pathogens. When the body detects an infection, it releases pyrogens, which act on the hypothalamus to raise the body's temperature. This elevated temperature helps to create an environment that is less hospitable to bacteria and viruses, and it also stimulates the immune system to fight the infection.
In clients with low WBC, the immune system is already compromised, so the fever response may be even more pronounced. It's important to note that even a slight elevation in temperature (as low as 100.4°F or 38°C) can be significant in these clients.
Choice B rationale:
Chills can also be a sign of infection, but they are not as specific as fever. Chills can occur for other reasons, such as exposure to cold or anxiety.
Choice C rationale:
Tachycardia, or increased heart rate, can also be a sign of infection, but it is not as reliable as fever. Tachycardia can occur for other reasons, such as dehydration, pain, or anxiety.
Choice D rationale:
Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is not a typical early sign of infection. It is more likely to occur in later stages of infection, when the infection has spread to the lungs.
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