Choice A reason:
Administering oxygen using a non-rebreather mask is a subsequent step if initial measures do not improve fetal heart rate decelerations. It can help increase the amount of oxygen available to the fetus. Oxygen administration is a supportive measure that can be used if there are signs of fetal distress. In the scenario described, where the fetal heart rate slows after the start of a contraction with the lowest rate occurring after the peak, it suggests late decelerations, which are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Administering oxygen can help increase the fetal oxygen reserve and is a common intervention during labor when there are concerns about fetal well-being.

Choice B reason:
Increasing the rate of maintenance IV infusion is typically considered when there is a concern for maternal hypotension or dehydration, which may not be the immediate cause of the observed fetal heart rate pattern. Increasing the rate of an IV infusion can help improve maternal hydration and blood pressure, which in turn can enhance placental perfusion. However, this intervention is more indirect and may not provide the immediate response needed to address fetal heart rate decelerations. It is typically considered after more direct interventions, such as repositioning the mother, have been attempted.

Choice C reason:
Elevating the client's legs can help improve venous return to the heart, potentially increasing maternal cardiac output and blood flow to the placenta. While this can be beneficial, it is not the primary intervention for late decelerations. Repositioning the mother to improve uteroplacental circulation is generally the first step.
Choice D reason:
Placing the client in the lateral position is often the first action taken when late decelerations are observed. This position helps improve uteroplacental blood flow and can quickly address potential issues related to fetal oxygenation. This position helps to relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava and aorta, which can be compressed by the gravid uterus, especially in the supine position. Relieving this pressure helps to improve uteroplacental circulation and can quickly address the cause of late decelerations, which is often related to compromised blood flow to the placenta.

Choice A reason:
Magnesium sulfate is used in the management of severe preeclampsia primarily for seizure prophylaxis. One of the key side effects of magnesium sulfate is its impact on neuromuscular transmission, leading to diminished deep-tendon reflexes as serum magnesium levels rise. The therapeutic range for anticonvulsant prophylaxis is typically between 5-8 mg/dL. Reflexes may begin to diminish when serum levels reach 8-12 mg/dL, indicating potential magnesium toxicity. Therefore, diminished reflexes are a warning sign to reassess the infusion rate and possibly reduce or discontinue the medication.

Choice B reason:
A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute falls within the normal adult range and suggests that the client's respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the magnesium sulfate infusion. Respiratory rate is a critical parameter to monitor during magnesium sulfate therapy, as respiratory depression is a serious side effect of magnesium toxicity. Maintaining a normal respiratory rate indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion at the current rate.

Choice C reason:
While a urine output of 50 mL/hr is on the lower end of the normal range, it is still considered adequate for most adults. In the setting of magnesium sulfate therapy for severe preeclampsia, maintaining adequate urine output is essential for ensuring that the kidneys can excrete the magnesium to prevent accumulation and toxicity. If urine output decreases significantly, it may necessitate reevaluation of the infusion rate or additional interventions to support renal function.

Choice D reason:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is slightly bradycardic but may not be clinically significant if the client is asymptomatic. However, magnesium has a direct effect on cardiac function, and high levels can lead to bradycardia and other cardiac conduction abnormalities. It is important to monitor the client's heart rate and rhythm during magnesium sulfate therapy to detect any early signs of cardiac involvement due to magnesium toxicity.

Choice A reason:
Telling a client that a pelvic exam is required for birth control pills is not accurate. Current medical guidelines indicate that a pelvic exam is not necessary to prescribe oral contraceptive medications, hormonal contraceptives can be safely prescribed based on medical history and blood pressure measurement without the need for a pelvic or breast examination.

Choice B reason:
While offering support is important, simply telling the client not to worry does not address her specific concerns or provide her with information about the process and her options.

Choice C reason:
Advising the client to relax does not acknowledge the validity of her feelings or provide her with any concrete information or support to help alleviate her anxiety.

Choice D reason:
Asking the client what part of the exam makes her most nervous is an open-ended question that invites dialogue. It allows the nurse to provide targeted information and reassurance, addressing the client's specific concerns and promoting a sense of control and participation in her own health care decisions.

Choice A Reason:
Using a cotton-tipped swab to clean a newborn's nares can be dangerous. It can push debris further into the nose, cause mucosal damage, bleeding, or even introduce germs. Instead, the nurse should advise the mother to use a bulb syringe for gentle suction if necessary.

Choice B Reason:
Leaving the yellow exudate on the circumcision site is actually recommended. This exudate is part of the normal healing process and does not need to be removed. It acts as a natural barrier to infection and will clear up as the circumcision heals.

Choice C Reason:
Cleaning the umbilical cord with tap water is generally considered safe and can help keep the area clean. However, the nurse should ensure that the mother dries the area thoroughly afterward to prevent moisture from promoting bacterial growth.

Choice D Reason:
Cleaning the newborn's eyes from the inner canthus outwards is the correct technique. It prevents contamination from the outer part of the eye to the inner part and helps to clear any discharge or debris effectively.

Choice a) reason:
Timing the administration of pain medication can help minimize the amount of medication that passes into the breast milk. By scheduling pain relief around breastfeeding times, the nurse can ensure that the peak concentration of the medication in the blood (and therefore potentially in the milk) does not coincide with the baby's feeding times. This approach helps manage the mother's pain while also protecting the newborn from unnecessary exposure to medication.

Choice b) reason:
While managing pain is important for the mother's comfort and recovery, stating that she needs to take medication without considering her concerns about breastfeeding may not be supportive or respectful of her wishes. It's essential to address her concerns and provide options that align with her breastfeeding goals.

Choice c) reason:
It is true that all medications can be found in breast milk to some extent; however, the levels can vary widely based on the medication's properties. The nurse should provide information about the specific medication's safety during breastfeeding and discuss any potential risks with the mother.

Choice d) reason:
Informing the mother that she has the option of not taking pain medication addresses her autonomy in decision-making. However, it's also important for the nurse to discuss the potential consequences of untreated pain, such as impaired ability to care for the newborn and delayed recovery.

Choice A Reason:
Iron is not poorly absorbed in infants; in fact, infants absorb iron quite efficiently. Breast milk contains a small amount of iron, but it is highly bioavailable and well-absorbed. When switching to formula, it is important to use iron-fortified options to prevent iron deficiency anemia.

Choice B Reason:
While iron is essential for overall growth and development, including bone growth, it is not the primary reason for emphasizing iron in infant nutrition. The key concern with iron, especially when transitioning from breastfeeding, is the prevention of iron deficiency anemia, which can affect cognitive and motor development.

Choice C Reason:
This is the correct information to include in the teaching. Infants are born with a reserve of iron that begins to deplete around 4 to 6 months of age. It is crucial to introduce iron-fortified formula at this time to ensure the infant continues to receive adequate iron for development and to prevent iron deficiency anemia.

Choice D Reason:
Iron does play a role in the development of the nervous system, which can indirectly affect vision, but it is not specifically known for facilitating the development of vision in infants. The primary concern with iron intake in infants relates to its role in preventing anemia and supporting overall growth and development.

Choice A Reason:
Peanut butter should be eliminated from the diet of a pregnant client with PKU. It is a high-protein food that contains phenylalanine, an amino acid that individuals with PKU cannot metabolize properly¹. The accumulation of phenylalanine can lead to serious health issues for both the mother and the developing fetus, including the risk of intellectual disability in the child.

Choice B Reason:
Potatoes are generally safe for individuals with PKU to consume. They are not high in protein and thus do not contain large amounts of phenylalanine. However, portion sizes and overall dietary balance should be monitored by a healthcare professional to ensure proper nutrition.

Choice C Reason:
Apple juice is also safe for individuals with PKU. It does not contain protein and therefore is not a significant source of phenylalanine. It can be included in the diet as part of the fluid intake.

Choice D Reason:
Broccoli is a low-protein vegetable and is typically allowed in the diets of individuals with PKU. It contains some phenylalanine, but in much lower amounts compared to high-protein foods. As with all foods, it should be consumed in moderation according to dietary guidelines provided by a healthcare professional.

Choice A Reason:
Tocolytic therapy is not indicated for a client with a post-term pregnancy. Tocolytics are medications used to suppress premature labor, and a pregnancy at 42 weeks is considered post-term, not preterm.

Choice B Reason:
Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal occurrences during pregnancy and do not indicate preterm labor. They are often referred to as "false labor" because they do not lead to cervical dilation or effacement. Therefore, tocolytic therapy is not necessary.

Choice C Reason:
Administering tocolytic therapy in the case of fetal death is not appropriate. Tocolytics are used to delay preterm labor to allow for fetal maturation or to prolong pregnancy to administer corticosteroids for fetal lung development, which is not applicable in this scenario.

Choice D Reason:
Tocolytic therapy is appropriate for a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation. The goal of tocolytic therapy is to delay delivery to allow for the administration of corticosteroids to accelerate fetal lung maturity or to transfer the client to a facility equipped for premature infants.

Choice A Reason:
It is not necessary to avoid food and fluids the day of the procedure unless specifically instructed by the healthcare provider. Amniocentesis does not typically require fasting; however, some facilities may have different protocols.

Choice B Reason:
A bowel prep protocol is not required for an amniocentesis. This procedure is unrelated to the gastrointestinal tract, and bowel preparation is more commonly associated with procedures like colonoscopy.

Choice C Reason:
Emptying the bladder immediately prior to the procedure is important. A full bladder can obstruct the view of the uterus during ultrasound, which is used to guide the amniocentesis needle. Additionally, an empty bladder reduces the risk of accidental puncture during the procedure.

Choice D Reason:
Washing the abdomen with soap and water the morning of the procedure is a good hygiene practice but is not specifically required for amniocentesis. The area will be cleaned with antiseptic by the healthcare provider before the procedure.

Choice A Reason:
The recommended intake of iron does not necessarily increase during lactation. In fact, the iron requirement may decrease because menstruation usually ceases, reducing iron loss. However, maintaining adequate iron intake is still important for overall health and to support the baby's growth.

Choice B Reason:
Zinc is crucial for immune function, cell division, and growth, making it an important nutrient during lactation. The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) for zinc for lactating women is indeed higher than for non-pregnant, non-lactating women, with an RDA of about 12 mg per day.

Choice C Reason:
While calcium is important for bone health, the recommended intake for lactating women is not as high as 2,000 mg per day. The RDA for calcium for lactating women is about 1,000 mg per day, similar to that for non-lactating women.

Choice D Reason:
The recommended intake of folic acid does not remain the same as for pregnant women. During pregnancy, the RDA for folic acid is higher to prevent neural tube defects. While folic acid is still important during lactation for cell growth and DNA synthesis, the requirement is slightly lower than during pregnancy.