A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation and will return to the facility in 2 days for an amniocentesis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

"Complete a bowel prep protocol the day before the procedure."

"Empty her bladder immediately prior to the procedure."

"Food and fluids should not be consumed the day of the procedure."

"Wash her abdomen with soap and water the morning of the procedure."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A: Bowel prep protocols are not required for an amniocentesis procedure, as it involves sampling amniotic fluid from the uterus, not the bowel.
Choice B: Emptying the bladder before the procedure is important to improve comfort and minimize the risk of accidental puncture during the amniocentesis.

Choice C: It is essential to have a full bladder for some ultrasound procedures, but it is not necessary for an amniocentesis. A full bladder can help push the uterus upward and make it easier to visualize the fetus during the ultrasound, but it is not relevant to the amniocentesis procedure.
Choice D: Washing the abdomen with soap and water is not a required step for an amniocentesis procedure. The procedure involves sterile preparation of the abdomen using an antiseptic
solution.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A surge of energy: Some women experience a sudden burst of energy, often referred to as a "nesting" instinct, shortly before the onset of labor.
B. Urinary retention: Urinary frequency and urgency are more common before labor, not urinary retention.
C. Decreased vaginal discharge: Before labor, there might be an increase in vaginal discharge, often thick and pinkish, known as the "bloody show."
D. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg: Weight gain is not typically associated with the onset of labor.

A. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet. B. The lowermost portion of the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines. C. The posterior fontanel is palpable. D. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet: This is an incorrect

interpretation of station 0. Station 0 means that the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, not fully descended through the pelvic outlet.

B) The lowermost portion of the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines: This is the correct interpretation of station 0. Station 0 is the landmark at which the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines in the maternal pelvis.
C) The posterior fontanel is palpable: The position of the fontanelle is not related to the station of the presenting part.
D) The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position: The position of the fetal head is not indicated by the station measurement.

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A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation and will return to the facility in 2 days for an amniocentesis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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