A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation and will return to the facility in 2 days for an amniocentesis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

"Complete a bowel prep protocol the day before the procedure."

"Empty her bladder immediately prior to the procedure."

"Food and fluids should not be consumed the day of the procedure."

"Wash her abdomen with soap and water the morning of the procedure."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A: Bowel prep protocols are not required for an amniocentesis procedure, as it involves sampling amniotic fluid from the uterus, not the bowel.
Choice B: Emptying the bladder before the procedure is important to improve comfort and minimize the risk of accidental puncture during the amniocentesis.

Choice C: It is essential to have a full bladder for some ultrasound procedures, but it is not necessary for an amniocentesis. A full bladder can help push the uterus upward and make it easier to visualize the fetus during the ultrasound, but it is not relevant to the amniocentesis procedure.
Choice D: Washing the abdomen with soap and water is not a required step for an amniocentesis procedure. The procedure involves sterile preparation of the abdomen using an antiseptic
solution.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Reposition the client with one hip elevated or on her left side: This is the correct first priority action. The client's vital signs indicate hypotension (low blood pressure), which may be caused by supine hypotensive syndrome. This condition occurs when the pregnant uterus compresses the vena cava, reducing blood return to the heart and causing a drop in blood pressure. Repositioning the client on her left side or elevating one hip can relieve the pressure on the vena cava and
improve blood flow to both the mother and the baby.

B) Notify the provider of the findings: While it is essential to inform the provider about the client's status, the first priority is to address the potential cause of hypotension and maternal discomfort.

C) Ask the client if she needs pain medication: Pain management is essential, but the client's vital signs and potential hypotensive condition take precedence as the first priority.
D) Have the client empty her bladder: Emptying the bladder can help reduce pressure on the vena cava and may improve blood flow, but it is not the first priority action in this situation. Repositioning the client is the initial priority to relieve supine hypotensive syndrome.

A. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly. B. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section. C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid. D. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hr.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A: Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is indicated for enhancing fetal lung maturity in cases of anticipated preterm birth. However, the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is not considered preterm, and the elevated temperature is the main concern.
B: Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section based solely on an elevated temperature is not an appropriate action. There may be other factors contributing to the temperature elevation, and further assessment is needed.

C: An elevated temperature during pregnancy can indicate infection, which is a concern when the client's membranes have ruptured (premature rupture of membranes or PROM). Before any
interventions are initiated, the nurse should assess the odor of the amniotic fluid as it can provide important information about possible infection. If the amniotic fluid has a foul odor or appears
cloudy, it may indicate infection and require prompt medical attention.

D: Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours is not the appropriate immediate action when an elevated temperature is observed, especially in a pregnant woman.

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A nurse is teaching a client who is at 23 weeks of gestation and will return to the facility in 2 days for an amniocentesis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse admits a woman who is at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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