A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a negative rubella titer. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?
The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time.
The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time.
The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery.
The client is immune to the rubella virus.
The Correct Answer is C
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Quickening: Quickening is the term used to describe the first perception of fetal movements by the pregnant woman. It typically occurs between 16 to 20 weeks of gestation, which aligns with the client's statement about feeling fluttering movements at 18 weeks.
B) Ballottement: Ballottement is a physical examination technique performed by a healthcare provider to assess the fetus's position in the uterus. It is not related to the client's perception of fetal movement.
C) Chloasma: Chloasma refers to hyperpigmented skin areas that can appear during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It is not related to fetal movement.
D) Lightening: Lightening refers to the descent of the fetal head into the maternal pelvis, which typically occurs in the third trimester. It is not related to the feeling of fetal movements by the mother.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
The correct answer is B, C, and D.
Choice A: Increase the oxytocin infusion to 13 mu/min
Increasing the oxytocin infusion is not indicated in this scenario. Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but if the fetal heart rate tracing is abnormal (Category 3), increasing oxytocin could exacerbate fetal distress. The priority is to stabilize the fetal condition before considering increasing oxytocin.
Choice B: Initiate a bolus of primary IV fluids
Initiating a bolus of primary IV fluids is appropriate. This action helps improve placental perfusion and maternal hydration, which can be beneficial in response to abnormal fetal heart rate tracings. Adequate hydration can enhance uteroplacental blood flow and improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice C: Place the client in a sidelying position
Placing the client in a sidelying position is recommended. This position can improve uteroplacental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, especially if there are signs of fetal distress. It helps to alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, enhancing blood flow to the placenta.
Choice D: Apply oxygen at 10 L/min via a venturi mask
Applying oxygen at 10 L/min via a venturi mask is indicated for improving fetal oxygenation in cases of abnormal fetal heart rate patterns. This intervention can help increase the oxygen available to the fetus, which is crucial in managing fetal distress.
Choice E: Perform a sterile vaginal examination (SVE)
Performing a sterile vaginal examination (SVE) is not indicated based on the provided assessment findings. While SVE is useful for assessing cervical dilation and labor progression, it is not a priority in this situation where the main concern is fetal well-being. Unnecessary SVEs can increase the risk of infection.
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