A nurse midwife is examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she believes she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirm to the nurse that the client is in labor?

"Report of pain above the umbilicus"

"Amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault"

"Brownish vaginal discharge"

"Cervical dilation"

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A: Pain above the umbilicus may be associated with various conditions during pregnancy, but it is not a definitive sign of labor.

Choice B: The presence of amniotic fluid in the vaginal vault (rupture of membranes or "water breaking") can be a sign of labor, but it is not the most specific indicator.

Choice C: Brownish vaginal discharge may indicate the passage of old blood or "bloody show," which can be a sign of impending labor. However, it is not as reliable as cervical dilation.

Choice D: Cervical dilation is one of the most definitive signs of labor. As the cervix opens and thins (effaces), it allows for the baby's passage through the birth canal. Cervical dilation is an essential indicator of active labor.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.

B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.

C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.

D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.

A. "This is a presumptive sign of pregnancy." B. "This is a positive sign of pregnancy." C. "This is a probable sign of pregnancy." D. "This is a potential sign of pregnancy."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A: Quickening, which refers to the sensation of the baby moving in the womb, is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy. It is called "presumptive" because it is subjective and can be attributed to other causes, such as gas or gastrointestinal movements.

B: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that are attributed only to the presence of a fetus, such as fetal heartbeat or visualization on ultrasound. Feeling the baby move (quickening) is not specific enough to confirm pregnancy on its own.

C: Probable signs of pregnancy are more objective and can be detected by a healthcare provider, such as a positive pregnancy test or ballottement (rebounding of the fetus against the examiner's fingers). Feeling the baby move is not a probable sign as it is subjective and can be attributed to other factors.

D: "Potential sign of pregnancy" is not a recognized classification in pregnancy signs.

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A nurse midwife is examining a client who is a primigravida at 42 weeks of gestation and states that she believes she is in labor. Which of the following findings confirm to the nurse that the client is in labor?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who states that she might be pregnant because she feels the baby moving. How does the nurse classify this statement by the client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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