A nurse at a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. The client tells the nurse that she is upset because, although she and her husband planned this pregnancy, she has been having many doubts and second thoughts about the upcoming changes in her life.
Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"Don't worry. You will be fine once the baby is born."
"Ambivalent feelings are quite common for women early in pregnancy."
"Perhaps you should see a counselor to discuss these feelings further."
"Have you spoken to your mother about these feelings?"
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: This response is dismissive and does not validate the client's feelings. It may not address the client's concerns effectively.
Choice B: This response validates the client's feelings and reassures her that ambivalent feelings about pregnancy are common. It provides a supportive approach and normalizes her emotions.
Choice C: While counseling might be helpful for some clients, suggesting it immediately without further assessment of the client's needs may not be the most appropriate response at this stage.
Choice D: Encouraging the client to discuss her feelings with her mother may not be suitable, as the client might prefer professional support or may not have a positive relationship with her
mother. It is essential to avoid making assumptions about the client's support system and address her concerns empathetically.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.
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