A nurse is admitting a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following assessment findings is the first priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
Contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions.
Pressure on the perineum causing the client to have the desire to bear down.
Discharge consisting of clear fluid from the vagina.
Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A: The first priority assessment finding to report to the provider is contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. Prolonged contractions without adequate rest can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, potentially compromising the wellbeing of both the client and the baby. The provider needs to be informed immediately for further
evaluation and intervention.
Choice B: Pressure on the perineum and the desire to bear down indicate that the client is experiencing the urge to push, which is expected during the second stage of labor, not during the active phase of the first stage. It is not the first priority to report.
Choice C: Clear fluid discharge from the vagina can indicate rupture of membranes, but it is not an immediate concern unless the fluid is meconiumstained or there are other signs of fetal distress.
Choice D: Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug (also known as "bloody show") is a common sign that labor is approaching, but it is not an immediate concern unless there are other signs of labor progression or complications. It is not the first priority to report.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A: Elevated temperature during labor may be common and is not the nurse's first priority, especially when the client is receiving epidural analgesia, as it can be related to the stress of labor or other factors.
B: Reduced sensation of the lower extremities is an expected effect of epidural analgesia, and it is not the nurse's first priority unless it leads to complications such as motor weakness or respiratory distress.
C: Generalized itching is a common side effect of epidural analgesia due to opioids, and it can be managed with interventions such as antihistamines. However, it is not the nurse's first priority unless it is severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
D: Epidural analgesia can cause vasodilation and decrease the client's blood pressure, which can lead to hypotension. Hypotension can be detrimental to both the mother and the baby and requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Therefore, the nurse's first priority is to address the low blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.
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