A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and scheduled for an amniocentesis. The client asks why she is having an ultrasound prior to the procedure. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"This will determine if there is more than one fetus."
"It assists in identifying the location of the placenta and fetus."
"This is a screening tool for spina bifida."
"It is useful for estimating fetal age."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: An ultrasound can indeed determine the number of fetuses if a client is carrying multiples, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before amniocentesis.
Choice B: An ultrasound is typically done before an amniocentesis to visualize the location of the placenta and fetus. This information is important to ensure that the amniocentesis needle is safely inserted away from the placenta and the fetus.
Choice C: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid to screen for genetic conditions, not specifically for spina bifida.
Choice D: Fetal age can be estimated through an ultrasound, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before an amniocentesis. The main goal of the procedure is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Reposition the client with one hip elevated or on her left side: This is the correct first priority action. The client's vital signs indicate hypotension (low blood pressure), which may be caused by supine hypotensive syndrome. This condition occurs when the pregnant uterus compresses the vena cava, reducing blood return to the heart and causing a drop in blood pressure. Repositioning the client on her left side or elevating one hip can relieve the pressure on the vena cava and
improve blood flow to both the mother and the baby.
B) Notify the provider of the findings: While it is essential to inform the provider about the client's status, the first priority is to address the potential cause of hypotension and maternal discomfort.
C) Ask the client if she needs pain medication: Pain management is essential, but the client's vital signs and potential hypotensive condition take precedence as the first priority.
D) Have the client empty her bladder: Emptying the bladder can help reduce pressure on the vena cava and may improve blood flow, but it is not the first priority action in this situation. Repositioning the client is the initial priority to relieve supine hypotensive syndrome.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine the fetal position and presentation by palpating the abdomen. ROA stands for Right Occiput Anterior, which means the baby's head is presenting and facing towards the mother's right side (Occiput) and positioned anteriorly (front of the pelvis).
This position is a common and favorable presentation for a vaginal delivery.
Choice A: Shoulder presentation is when the baby is presenting with the shoulder rather than the head. It is an abnormal presentation and requires a cesarean delivery.
Choice B: Mentum presentation is a type of face presentation, where the baby's chin (mentum) is presenting instead of the head. It is also an abnormal presentation and usually requires a cesarean delivery.
Choice C: Breech presentation is when the baby's buttocks or feet are presenting first instead of the head. It is another abnormal presentation that may require a cesarean delivery or careful vaginal delivery with a skilled healthcare provider.
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