A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and scheduled for an amniocentesis. The client asks why she is having an ultrasound prior to the procedure. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"This will determine if there is more than one fetus."
"It assists in identifying the location of the placenta and fetus."
"This is a screening tool for spina bifida."
"It is useful for estimating fetal age."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: An ultrasound can indeed determine the number of fetuses if a client is carrying multiples, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before amniocentesis.
Choice B: An ultrasound is typically done before an amniocentesis to visualize the location of the placenta and fetus. This information is important to ensure that the amniocentesis needle is safely inserted away from the placenta and the fetus.
Choice C: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid to screen for genetic conditions, not specifically for spina bifida.
Choice D: Fetal age can be estimated through an ultrasound, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before an amniocentesis. The main goal of the procedure is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: While relaxation can be helpful during a pelvic examination, it is not the most comprehensive response to address the client's concerns.
Choice B: A pelvic examination is not always required for prescribing birth control pills. In many cases, a healthcare provider can prescribe oral contraceptives based on the client's medical history and other factors without a pelvic exam.
Choice C: This response encourages the client to express her specific concerns and fears related to the examination, allowing the nurse to address them directly and provide appropriate support and reassurance.
Choice D: Although offering support during the exam is important, it does not address the client's nervousness and concerns about the examination itself.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.
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