A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and scheduled for an amniocentesis. The client asks why she is having an ultrasound prior to the procedure. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

"This will determine if there is more than one fetus."

"It assists in identifying the location of the placenta and fetus."

"This is a screening tool for spina bifida."

"It is useful for estimating fetal age."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A: An ultrasound can indeed determine the number of fetuses if a client is carrying multiples, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before amniocentesis.

Choice B: An ultrasound is typically done before an amniocentesis to visualize the location of the placenta and fetus. This information is important to ensure that the amniocentesis needle is safely inserted away from the placenta and the fetus.

Choice C: The primary purpose of an amniocentesis is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid to screen for genetic conditions, not specifically for spina bifida.

Choice D: Fetal age can be estimated through an ultrasound, but this is not the primary reason for performing an ultrasound before an amniocentesis. The main goal of the procedure is to obtain a sample of amniotic fluid for genetic testing.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.

B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.

C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.

D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.

A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to maintain an empty blaadder at all times. B. Keep four side rails up while the client is in bed, maintaining strict bedrest. C. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) hourly during active labor. D. Check the cervix to determine how close the time of delivery may be prior to analgesic administration.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A: Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to maintain an empty bladder at all times.

Routinely inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not necessary for maintaining an empty bladder during labor. While it is important to ensure the client has a voiding schedule, the use of an indwelling catheter should be reserved for specific medical indications, such as when the client is unable to void or has received an epidural. Indwelling catheters can increase the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) and should be used judiciously.

Choice B: Keep four side rails up while the client is in bed, maintaining strict bedrest.

Keeping all four side rails up and maintaining strict bedrest is not appropriate during active labor. This practice can limit the client’s movement, which is essential for comfort and progress during labor. Movement and changing positions can help labor progress and reduce pain. Strict bedrest is generally reserved for specific medical conditions, such as preterm labor or other complications.

Choice C: Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) hourly during active labor.

Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) is crucial during labor to assess the well-being of the fetus. However, hourly monitoring may not be sufficient. Guidelines recommend more frequent monitoring, typically every 15-30 minutes during the active phase of labor and every 5-15 minutes during the second stage. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring may be used for high-risk pregnancies or if there are signs of fetal distress.

Choice D: Check the cervix to determine how close the time of delivery may be prior to analgesic administration.

Checking the cervix to determine how close the time of delivery may be prior to analgesic administration is important. This practice helps ensure that analgesics are administered at an appropriate time, avoiding potential complications such as delayed delivery or inadequate pain relief. Cervical checks provide valuable information about the progress of labor and help guide clinical decisions regarding pain management and delivery planning.

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A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and scheduled for an amniocentesis. The client asks why she is having an ultrasound prior to the procedure. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

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A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is creating the plan of care for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and in active labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A: Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to maintain an empty bladder at all times.

Choice B: Keep four side rails up while the client is in bed, maintaining strict bedrest.

Choice C: Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) hourly during active labor.

Choice D: Check the cervix to determine how close the time of delivery may be prior to analgesic administration.

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A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and scheduled for an amniocentesis. The client asks why she is having an ultrasound prior to the procedure. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

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