A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 17 year old female client who is requesting oral contraceptives. The client states that she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"All you need to do is relax."
"A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills."
"What part of the exam makes you most nervous?"
"Don't worry, I will be with you during the exam."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: While relaxation can be helpful during a pelvic examination, it is not the most comprehensive response to address the client's concerns.
Choice B: A pelvic examination is not always required for prescribing birth control pills. In many cases, a healthcare provider can prescribe oral contraceptives based on the client's medical history and other factors without a pelvic exam.
Choice C: This response encourages the client to express her specific concerns and fears related to the examination, allowing the nurse to address them directly and provide appropriate support and reassurance.
Choice D: Although offering support during the exam is important, it does not address the client's nervousness and concerns about the examination itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Leukorrhea, which refers to an increase in vaginal discharge, is a common discomfort during pregnancy and is generally not a cause for concern.
Choice B: Painful and tender areas on the leg may be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a potentially dangerous condition. During pregnancy, there is an increased risk of developing blood clots, and DVT can be a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.
Choice C: Nausea and vomiting are common in early pregnancy and are usually associated with morning sickness. While it can be uncomfortable, it is generally not considered a dangerous symptom unless it leads to severe dehydration.
Choice D: Urinary frequency is a common discomfort during pregnancy, especially in the first and third trimesters. Although it can be bothersome, it is not typically a sign of immediate danger.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A: Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is indicated for enhancing fetal lung maturity in cases of anticipated preterm birth. However, the client is at 38 weeks of gestation, which is not considered preterm, and the elevated temperature is the main concern.
B: Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section based solely on an elevated temperature is not an appropriate action. There may be other factors contributing to the temperature elevation, and further assessment is needed.
C: An elevated temperature during pregnancy can indicate infection, which is a concern when the client's membranes have ruptured (premature rupture of membranes or PROM). Before any
interventions are initiated, the nurse should assess the odor of the amniotic fluid as it can provide important information about possible infection. If the amniotic fluid has a foul odor or appears
cloudy, it may indicate infection and require prompt medical attention.
D: Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours is not the appropriate immediate action when an elevated temperature is observed, especially in a pregnant woman.
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