A nurse in a family planning clinic is caring for a 17 year old female client who is requesting oral contraceptives. The client states that she is nervous because she has never had a pelvic examination. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"All you need to do is relax."
"A pelvic exam is required if you want birth control pills."
"What part of the exam makes you most nervous?"
"Don't worry, I will be with you during the exam."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: While relaxation can be helpful during a pelvic examination, it is not the most comprehensive response to address the client's concerns.
Choice B: A pelvic examination is not always required for prescribing birth control pills. In many cases, a healthcare provider can prescribe oral contraceptives based on the client's medical history and other factors without a pelvic exam.
Choice C: This response encourages the client to express her specific concerns and fears related to the examination, allowing the nurse to address them directly and provide appropriate support and reassurance.
Choice D: Although offering support during the exam is important, it does not address the client's nervousness and concerns about the examination itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Administer oxygen using a nonrebreather mask: While oxygen may be necessary if there are signs of fetal distress, the priority action in this situation is to reposition the client and relieve potential cord compression.
B) Elevate the client's legs: Elevating the client's legs is not the most appropriate action in this situation and may not address the cause of the decelerations.
C) Place the client in the lateral position: This is the correct answer. The described pattern of the fetal heart rate (slowdown after the start of a contraction with the lowest rate occurring after the peak of the contraction) suggests late decelerations, which are often caused by uteroplacental
insufficiency or cord compression. Placing the client in the lateral position can help alleviate potential compression of the umbilical cord and improve fetal oxygenation.
D) Increase the rate of maintenance IV infusion: Increasing the IV infusion rate may not be the most appropriate action for late decelerations. Repositioning the client is the priority in this situation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior: The occiput posterior position (the back of
the baby's head facing the mother's back) can lead to a more challenging and prolonged labor with intense back pain.
B. Fetal attitude is in general flexion: Flexion is the normal fetal attitude for birth and does not contribute to a difficult labor with backache.
C. Fetal lie is longitudinal: Longitudinal lie refers to the baby's position along the mother's spine, but it doesn't specify the position of the baby's back, so it is not directly related to backache.
D. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid: Gynecoid pelvis is the most favorable pelvis shape for childbirth, so it is not likely to cause difficult labor with severe backache.
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