A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15 /min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following
interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A reactive test
A negative test
A positive test
A nonreactive test
The Correct Answer is D
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: The first priority assessment finding to report to the provider is contractions lasting 2 minutes and with no rest between contractions. Prolonged contractions without adequate rest can lead to uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress, potentially compromising the wellbeing of both the client and the baby. The provider needs to be informed immediately for further
evaluation and intervention.
Choice B: Pressure on the perineum and the desire to bear down indicate that the client is experiencing the urge to push, which is expected during the second stage of labor, not during the active phase of the first stage. It is not the first priority to report.
Choice C: Clear fluid discharge from the vagina can indicate rupture of membranes, but it is not an immediate concern unless the fluid is meconiumstained or there are other signs of fetal distress.
Choice D: Passage of a bloodtinged mucous plug (also known as "bloody show") is a common sign that labor is approaching, but it is not an immediate concern unless there are other signs of labor progression or complications. It is not the first priority to report.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is: April 11, 2016
Choice A: April 27, 2016
Reason: Using Naegele’s Rule, the estimated date of delivery (EDD) is calculated by adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). For an LMP of May 4, 2015:
- Add one year: May 4, 2016
- Subtract three months: February 4, 2016
- Add seven days: February 11, 2016
April 27, 2016, is incorrect because it does not follow the correct calculation steps.
Choice B: April 11, 2016
Reason: Following Naegele’s Rule:
- Add one year: May 4, 2016
- Subtract three months: February 4, 2016
- Add seven days: February 11, 2016
April 11, 2016, is the correct EDD as it accurately follows the calculation steps.
Choice C: February 27, 2016
Reason: This date is incorrect because it does not follow the correct calculation steps of Naegele’s Rule. The correct EDD should be in April, not February.
Choice D: February 11, 2016
Reason: This date is also incorrect. While it follows the initial steps of Naegele’s Rule, it does not account for the full calculation, which should result in an April date, not February.
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