A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15 /min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following
interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A reactive test
A negative test
A positive test
A nonreactive test
The Correct Answer is D
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.
B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.
D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: A weight gain of about 1 pound per week is a general guideline for women with normal BMI. However, for a client with a BMI of 26.5, the recommended weight gain during pregnancy may differ.
Choice B: Gaining 11 to 20 pounds may not be sufficient for a client with a BMI of 26.5, as the recommended weight gain is slightly higher for women with a higher prepregnancy BMI.
Choice C: For a client with a BMI of 26.5, the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is approximately 15 to 25 pounds. This range is specific to women with a BMI in the overweight category.
Choice D: Gaining 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for clients with a lower BMI range (normal BMI). For a client with a BMI of 26.5, this amount of weight gain may be excessive.
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