A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15 /min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following
interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A reactive test
A negative test
A positive test
A nonreactive test
The Correct Answer is D
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Elevating the client's legs is a measure to increase blood flow to the brain in cases of orthostatic hypotension but may not be sufficient to improve fetal oxygenation in this situation. The lateral position is preferred as it improves uterine perfusion.
Choice B: The client's blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which can be a common side effect of epidural anesthesia. The priority nursing action is to place the client in a lateral (sidelying) position to improve blood flow to vital organs, including the uterus and placenta, and prevent further compromise of fetal oxygenation.
Choice C: Monitoring vital signs every 5 minutes is an important nursing action, but the priority in this situation is to address the hypotension and improve maternal and fetal wellbeing first.
Choice D: Notifying the provider is an important step, but it should not be the first action. Immediate intervention to address the hypotension is required to improve fetal oxygenation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The client requires a rubella vaccination at this time. This is incorrect because rubella vaccination is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of congenital rubella syndrome. Vaccination should be administered postpartum.
B. The client is not experiencing a rubella infection at this time. While this statement is true, it does not address the need for future immunization, which is the critical aspect of the interpretation.
C. The client requires a rubella immunization following delivery. This is correct because a negative rubella titer indicates that the client is not immune to rubella and should receive the vaccine postpartum to prevent future infection.
D. The client is immune to the rubella virus. This is incorrect because a negative rubella titer indicates a lack of immunity to rubella, meaning the client is susceptible to infection.
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