A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15 /min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following
interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A reactive test
A negative test
A positive test
A nonreactive test
The Correct Answer is D
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior: The occiput posterior position (the back of
the baby's head facing the mother's back) can lead to a more challenging and prolonged labor with intense back pain.
B. Fetal attitude is in general flexion: Flexion is the normal fetal attitude for birth and does not contribute to a difficult labor with backache.
C. Fetal lie is longitudinal: Longitudinal lie refers to the baby's position along the mother's spine, but it doesn't specify the position of the baby's back, so it is not directly related to backache.
D. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid: Gynecoid pelvis is the most favorable pelvis shape for childbirth, so it is not likely to cause difficult labor with severe backache.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: While relaxation can be helpful during a pelvic examination, it is not the most comprehensive response to address the client's concerns.
Choice B: A pelvic examination is not always required for prescribing birth control pills. In many cases, a healthcare provider can prescribe oral contraceptives based on the client's medical history and other factors without a pelvic exam.
Choice C: This response encourages the client to express her specific concerns and fears related to the examination, allowing the nurse to address them directly and provide appropriate support and reassurance.
Choice D: Although offering support during the exam is important, it does not address the client's nervousness and concerns about the examination itself.
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