A nurse is caring for a client during a nonstress test (NST). At the end of a 30min period of observation, the nurse notes the following findings: The fetal heart rate baseline is 120/min with minimal variability and no accelerations. There are two decelerations of 15 /min in the fetal heart rate during a period of fetal movement, each lasting 20 seconds. Which of the following
interpretations of these findings should the nurse make?
A reactive test
A negative test
A positive test
A nonreactive test
The Correct Answer is D
A) A reactive test: A reactive NST requires the presence of specific criteria, including at least two fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting for at least 15
seconds in a 20minute period, along with a baseline heart rate within the normal range (110160 bpm) and moderate variability.
B) A negative test: "Negative" is not a term used to describe NST results.
C) A positive test: "Positive" is not a term used to describe NST results.
D) A nonreactive test: This is the correct interpretation. In a nonreactive NST, the fetal heart rate did not demonstrate the required accelerations within the 30minute observation period. The absence of accelerations can indicate potential fetal compromise, and further evaluation, such as a contraction stress test or biophysical profile, may be necessary to assess the fetus's wellbeing.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A: Elevated temperature during labor may be common and is not the nurse's first priority, especially when the client is receiving epidural analgesia, as it can be related to the stress of labor or other factors.
B: Reduced sensation of the lower extremities is an expected effect of epidural analgesia, and it is not the nurse's first priority unless it leads to complications such as motor weakness or respiratory distress.
C: Generalized itching is a common side effect of epidural analgesia due to opioids, and it can be managed with interventions such as antihistamines. However, it is not the nurse's first priority unless it is severe or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.
D: Epidural analgesia can cause vasodilation and decrease the client's blood pressure, which can lead to hypotension. Hypotension can be detrimental to both the mother and the baby and requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Therefore, the nurse's first priority is to address the low blood pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Quickening: Quickening is the term used to describe the first perception of fetal movements by the pregnant woman. It typically occurs between 16 to 20 weeks of gestation, which aligns with the client's statement about feeling fluttering movements at 18 weeks.
B) Ballottement: Ballottement is a physical examination technique performed by a healthcare provider to assess the fetus's position in the uterus. It is not related to the client's perception of fetal movement.
C) Chloasma: Chloasma refers to hyperpigmented skin areas that can appear during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. It is not related to fetal movement.
D) Lightening: Lightening refers to the descent of the fetal head into the maternal pelvis, which typically occurs in the third trimester. It is not related to the feeling of fetal movements by the mother.
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