Hesi RN maternity Exam 7n

Hesi RN maternity Exam 7n

Total Questions : 48

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Question 1: View

A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute rhinosinusitis.

Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client? Select all that apply. 

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Applying warm compresses can help relieve the pain and pressure associated with acute rhinosinusitis by reducing inflammation and promoting sinus drainage.
Choice B rationale
Completing prescribed antibiotics is crucial in treating acute bacterial rhinosinusitis.
Antibiotics help eliminate the bacterial infection causing the inflammation and symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Smoking can irritate the nasal passages and exacerbate the symptoms of rhinosinusitis. Avoiding smoking can help reduce inflammation and promote healing.
Choice D rationale
Swimming, especially in chlorinated pools, can irritate the nasal passages and sinuses, potentially worsening the symptoms of rhinosinusitis. It’s recommended to avoid swimming until the condition has resolved.
Choice E rationale
Periorbital edema is not a normal finding and could indicate a complication of rhinosinusitis, such as a spread of the infection. If a client notices this symptom, they should seek medical attention.


Question 2: View

The nurse is instructing the parents of a child who underwent a surgical repair of a myelomeningocele on how to change an occlusive dressing on the child’s back.
Which parental statement indicates understanding of the procedure?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Keeping the skin incision moist by periodically wetting the dressing is not the recommended care for a myelomeningocele surgical repair. The dressing needs to be kept dry to prevent infection and promote healing.

Choice B rationale

Removing the tape rapidly from the edges of the dressing during a change is not advised. This could potentially damage the skin and disrupt the healing process.

Choice C rationale

An intact dressing protects the incision from fecal contamination, which is crucial in preventing infection. This statement indicates an understanding of the procedure.

Choice D rationale

While it’s important to keep the dressing dry to ensure easy removal of sutures, it’s not the primary concern. The main goal is to protect the incision from contamination.


Question 3: View

A client at 9-weeks gestation informs the nurse that she has reduced her alcohol intake but still consumes at least one alcoholic drink every evening before bedtime.
What action should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While it’s good that the client has reduced her alcohol intake, consuming alcohol during pregnancy can cause problems for the baby throughout pregnancy, including before a woman knows she is pregnant. Therefore, praising the client for her actions and offering to discuss ways to decrease consumption even more might not be enough.
Choice B rationale
Insisting that the client stop all alcohol use and drawing a blood alcohol level at each prenatal visit could be seen as invasive and might not address the underlying issue of alcohol dependency.
Choice C rationale
Notifying child protective services of the client’s illicit drug use and probable child endangerment is not applicable in this situation as the client has not mentioned any illicit drug use.
Choice D rationale
Referring the client to an outpatient alcohol abuse program for disulfiram therapy could be the most beneficial action. Disulfiram is a drug that is used to support the treatment of chronic alcoholism by producing an acute sensitivity to alcohol.


Question 4: View

During the second stage of labor, the fetal head has just been born and the nurse observes the immediate retraction of the head against the perineum.
What action should the nurse anticipate performing to assist the healthcare provider?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Preparing a vacuum is not the first action to take when the fetal head retracts against the perineum during the second stage of labor.

Choice B rationale

Applying suprapubic pressure can help guide the baby’s head out. This is a common practice during the second stage of labor when the baby’s head retracts against the perineum.

Choice C rationale

Applying fundal pressure is not typically done when the fetal head retracts against the perineum. Fundal pressure can be used to assist in the delivery of the baby, but it’s not the first action to take in this situation.

Choice D rationale

Preparing forceps is not the first action to take when the fetal head retracts against the perineum. Forceps are used to assist in the delivery of a baby, but only when necessary.


Question 5: View

The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a 3-year-old child.
Which speech and language skills should the nurse identify as normal developmental milestones for this child?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While using gestures with 1 to 2 word sentences is a developmental milestone, it is typically seen in younger children, around the age of 212.

Choice B rationale

Using 1 word sentences is a developmental milestone usually achieved by children around the age of 112. By the age of 3, children are typically able to speak in simple sentences with four or more words.

Choice C rationale

Speaking in simple sentences with four or more words is a typical developmental milestone for a 3-year-old child. They are able to express their thoughts more clearly and engage in conversations.

Choice D rationale

Recognizing most letters and numbers is a skill that is typically developed around the age of 4 or 512. Therefore, expecting a 3-year-old child to recognize most letters and numbers might be too advanced for their developmental stage.


Question 6: View

The nurse is caring for a client who is 40-weeks gestation in active labor and has received epidural anesthesia.

What is the most important assessment for the nurse to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While assessing the station of the presenting part is important during labor, it is not the most crucial assessment following the administration of epidural anesthesia.

Choice B rationale

Monitoring maternal blood pressure is the most important assessment following the administration of epidural anesthesia. Epidural anesthesia can cause a drop in blood pressure, which can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby.

Choice C rationale

Although assessing the variability of the fetal heart rate is important during labor, it is not the most crucial assessment following the administration of epidural anesthesia.

Choice D rationale

While assessing the level of pain sensation is important to evaluate the effectiveness of the epidural anesthesia, it is not the most crucial assessment following its administration.


Question 7: View

A client who experienced a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins is transferred to the postpartum unit.
The nurse knows that assessment for which complication is the highest priority for this client?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious complication that can occur after severe postpartum hemorrhage. It involves an abnormal activation of the clotting cascade, leading to the formation of small blood clots in the vessels and can result in organ damage.

Choice B rationale

Postpartum psychosis is a rare psychiatric emergency that typically presents with delirium and mood disturbances, and it is not directly related to postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice C rationale

While hard, painful uterine afterpains can occur after childbirth, they are not the highest priority for assessment in a client who experienced a severe postpartum hemorrhage.

Choice D rationale

Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. However, it is typically identified during pregnancy or at the time of delivery, not after a postpartum hemorrhage.


Question 8: View

The nurse is caring for a toddler with a large, unrepaired ventricular septal defect and heart failure.
What assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Blood pressure variance across extremities is not typically associated with unrepaired ventricular septal defect and heart failure in a toddler.

Choice B rationale

Hypotension is not a typical finding in toddlers with unrepaired ventricular septal defect and heart failure.

Choice C rationale

Tachycardia, or a fast heart rate, is a common symptom in toddlers with unrepaired ventricular septal defect and heart failure. This is because the heart has to work harder to pump blood through the body.

Choice D rationale

While a pulse oximetry reading within defined limits is ideal, it is not a typical finding in toddlers with unrepaired ventricular septal defect and heart failure.


Question 9: View

A client’s maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level is elevated at 17 weeks.
What condition should the nurse identify as the likely cause of this increase?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While multiple gestation can cause an increase in maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MS-AFP) levels, it is not the most likely cause of an elevated MS-AFP level at 17 weeks.

Choice B rationale

Fetal hypoxia, or lack of oxygen to the fetus, is not typically associated with an increase in MSAFP levels.

Choice C rationale

Down syndrome is typically associated with lower, not higher, levels of MS-AFP891011.

Choice D rationale

An elevated level of MS-AFP at 17 weeks is most commonly associated with a neural tube defect. Neural tube defects are birth defects of the brain, spine, or spinal cord that occur during the first month of pregnancy.


Question 10: View

The nurse is educating parents on how to prevent recurrent otitis media in their infant.
What advice should the nurse give?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While inspecting the infant’s ears daily can help detect signs of an ear infection early, it does not prevent recurrent otitis media.

Choice B rationale

Positioning the infant prone after feeding does not prevent recurrent otitis media and can actually increase the risk of sudden infant death syndrome.

Choice C rationale

While breastfeeding frequently can provide numerous health benefits for the infant, it does not specifically prevent recurrent otitis media.

Choice D rationale

Avoiding exposure to smoke can help prevent recurrent otitis media in infants. Smoke can irritate the Eustachian tubes, which can lead to fluid buildup and increase the risk of ear infections.


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