Ati med surg exam (acid base)

Ati med surg exam (acid base)

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Question 1: View

A nurse is collecting a medication history from a client who is scheduled to have a cardiac catheterization. Which of the following medications taken by the client interacts with contrast material and places the client at risk for acute kidney injury?

Explanation

A. Metformin is an oral antidiabetic medication commonly used to manage type 2 diabetes mellitus. It can cause a rare but serious side effect called lactic acidosis, especially in situations where there is impaired kidney function or when the drug interacts with contrast dye used in procedures like cardiac catheterization.
B. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and heart failure. It does not have a significant interaction with contrast dye that would increase the risk of AKI.
C. Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels. It does not interact with contrast dye in a way that increases the risk of AKI.
D. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator used to relieve angina symptoms. It does not interact with contrast dye in a way that increases the risk of AKI.


Question 2: View

A nurse is assessing a preoperative client. The client has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin daily. Which test order will the nurse request from the provider?

Explanation

A. Serum sodium levels are typically assessed to evaluate electrolyte balance and hydration status. While important for overall health assessment, it is not specifically related to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy.
B. This could be ordered for various reasons such as assessing lung status or identifying any abnormalities in the chest. It is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
C. BUN levels are measured to assess kidney function and hydration status. While important for overall health assessment, it is not specifically related to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy.
D. The INR is a standardized measurement of the blood's ability to clot. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, thereby prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. The INR is used to monitor and adjust warfarin dosage to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation levels, especially in patients with conditions like atrial fibrillation who are at risk of blood clots.


Question 3: View

A nurse is reviewing a client's CBC findings and discovers that the client's platelet count is 9,000/mm3. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following conditions?

Explanation

A. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) predisposes the client to spontaneous bleeding. This can manifest as petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), purpura (larger areas of purple discoloration), mucosal bleeding (such as nosebleeds or bleeding gums), or internal bleeding (such as gastrointestinal or intracranial bleeding). Monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential to promptly intervene and prevent complications.
B. While infections can occur in any client, a low platelet count does not directly predispose the client to infection. Thrombocytopenia primarily affects hemostasis rather than immune function.
C. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, typically less than 400 mL/day in adults. It is not directly related to thrombocytopenia but may occur in conditions affecting kidney function or fluid balance.
D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes can indicate neurological conditions or electrolyte imbalances but are not associated with thrombocytopenia.


Question 4: View

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is scheduled for surgery this morning. Which of the following results will cause the nurse to place a call to the surgical team?

Explanation

A. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L is below the normal range (typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Abnormal potassium levels can affect cardiac function, leading to arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats), especially if the potassium level drops further or if there is rapid fluctuation. This is a critical finding that requires immediate attention from the surgical team to assess the client's cardiac status and determine if potassium replacement is needed before proceeding with surgery.
B. Creatinine levels are used to assess kidney function. A creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dL is within the normal range (typically 0.6-1.2 mg/dL). While kidney function is important to evaluate before surgery, this result is not immediately concerning enough to require an urgent call to the surgical team.
C. Hemoglobin levels are assessed to evaluate oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. A hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL is within the normal range (typically 12-16 g/dL for women and 13-18 g/dL for men). This result indicates adequate oxygen-carrying capacity and does not require immediate communication with the surgical team.

D. Sodium levels are important for fluid balance and nerve function. A sodium level of 134 mEq/L is within the normal range (typically 135-145 mEq/L). While sodium levels should be monitored, this result is not critically abnormal and does not necessitate an urgent call to the surgical team.


Question 5: View

A nurse is reviewing the medical records of four clients who have an acid-base imbalance. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clients is at risk for metabolic acidosis?

Explanation

A. Diarrhea can lead to loss of bicarbonate from the body, resulting in metabolic acidosis. The loss of bicarbonate through gastrointestinal fluids causes an imbalance between acids and bases in the body.
B. Salicylates (such as aspirin) can cause metabolic acidosis by several mechanisms, including direct stimulation of the respiratory center in the brainstem (leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis initially) and later causing metabolic acidosis due to increased production of acids like lactic acid and ketoacids.
C. Vomiting can lead to loss of gastric acid (hydrochloric acid), which could initially lead to metabolic alkalosis due to loss of acid.
D. Thiazide diuretics can cause metabolic alkalosis rather than metabolic acidosis. They promote the loss of potassium and hydrogen ions (acid), leading to increased blood pH (alkalosis).


Question 6: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 4 hr postoperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. Postoperative patients often experience muscle tension and discomfort due to lying in one position for an extended period. A gentle back massage can help relieve muscle stiffness, promote relaxation, and improve circulation. It is a non-invasive comfort measure that can enhance the client's overall well- being.
B. Teaching relaxation techniques such as deep breathing exercises, guided imagery, or progressive muscle relaxation can help the client manage pain, reduce anxiety, and promote faster recovery. These techniques are beneficial postoperatively as they encourage relaxation and improve overall comfort.
C. Postoperative clients are at risk of developing respiratory complications such as atelectasis (partial lung collapse) or pneumonia due to shallow breathing or inadequate lung expansion. Coughing and deep breathing exercises help to clear secretions, improve lung function, and prevent respiratory complications. It is typically recommended to perform these exercises every hour to maintain lung expansion and prevent complications.
D. Encouraging the client to turn every 2 hours (D), not every 4 hours, is essential to prevent pressure ulcers and promote circulation.
E. Postoperative pain management is essential for the client's comfort and recovery. Pain can interfere with the client's ability to cough, deep breathe, and move effectively, which may increase the risk of complications. Administering analgesics as needed helps to control pain, improve overall comfort, and promote participation in necessary activities such as coughing, deep breathing, and turning.


Question 7: View

A nurse is planning care for a client who is 4 hr postoperative. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Explanation

A. A back massage (A) can be soothing and may help with circulation, but it's not typically a priority immediately postoperative.
B. Teaching relaxation techniques such as deep breathing exercises, guided imagery, or progressive muscle relaxation can help the client manage pain, reduce anxiety, and promote faster recovery. These techniques empower the client to actively participate in their comfort and recovery process.

C. Postoperative clients are at risk of developing respiratory complications such as atelectasis (partial lung collapse) due to shallow breathing. Coughing and deep breathing exercises help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent respiratory complications. It's important to encourage and assist the client in performing these exercises regularly.
D. Encouraging the client to turn every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and promotes good circulation, but turning might be more frequent depending on the surgery and the client's condition.
E. Pain management is crucial for postoperative comfort and recovery. Administering analgesics as needed helps to control pain effectively, which is essential for the client to participate in activities such as deep breathing, coughing, and moving, thereby reducing the risk of complications.


Question 8: View

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) results of a client who the provider suspects has metabolic acidosis. Which of the following results should the nurse expect to see?

Explanation

A. PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) reflects the respiratory component of acid-base balance. In metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system compensates by increasing ventilation to decrease PaCO2 (hyperventilation). Therefore, PaCO2 is typically below normal (less than 35-45 mm Hg) in metabolic acidosis, not above 45 mm Hg.
B. HCO3 (bicarbonate) is a buffer that helps regulate pH in the body. In metabolic acidosis, there is a primary decrease in HCO3 due to either increased acid production (e.g., lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis) or decreased acid elimination (e.g., renal failure). Therefore, HCO3 is typically below normal (< 22-26 mEq/L) in metabolic acidosis, not above 26 mEq/L.
C. PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) measures the oxygen level in the blood. It is not directly related to the diagnosis of metabolic acidosis. Low PaO2 levels may indicate respiratory dysfunction or impaired gas exchange but are not specific to metabolic acidosis.
D. pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the primary defect is a decrease in blood pH due to an excess of acids or a loss of bases. The pH typically decreases below the normal range of 7.35-7.45 in metabolic acidosis.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who is well-hydrated and who demonstrates no evidence of anemia. Which of the following laboratory values gives the nurse an assessment of the adequacy of the client's protein uptake and synthesis?

Explanation

A. Potassium levels are important for assessing electrolyte balance and are not directly indicative of protein intake or synthesis.
B. Calcium levels are important for bone health, nerve function, and muscle contraction. They are not directly indicative of protein intake or synthesis.
C. Albumin is a plasma protein that reflects the body's nutritional status and liver function. It has a relatively long half-life (approximately 20 days), making it a useful marker for assessing protein intake and synthesis over time. Low albumin levels can indicate malnutrition, liver disease, or other conditions affecting protein metabolism.
D. Sodium levels are important for fluid balance and nerve function. They are not directly indicative of protein intake or synthesis.


Question 10: View

A nurse is planning to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following laboratory results is the priority for the nurse to review prior to administering the medication?

Explanation

A. Hemoglobin levels are important for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. While anemia can affect tissue oxygenation and exacerbate symptoms in heart failure, it is not directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
B. Creatinine levels are used to assess kidney function. Impaired kidney function can affect the clearance of digoxin from the body, potentially increasing the risk of toxicity. However, potassium levels have a more direct impact on the risk of digoxin toxicity.
C. BUN levels are also used to assess kidney function. Similar to creatinine, impaired kidney function can affect digoxin clearance, but potassium levels are more directly related to the risk of digoxin toxicity.
D. Potassium levels are critical because hypokalemia (low potassium) can predispose the client to digoxin toxicity. Digoxin competes with potassium for binding sites on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in cardiac cells. When potassium levels are low, digoxin can bind more readily to these pumps, leading to increased toxicity and potentially life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.


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