A nurse is reviewing the medical records of four clients who have an acid-base imbalance. The nurse should recognize that which of the following clients is at risk for respiratory alkalosis?
A client who is taking a thiazide diuretic.
A client who is vomiting.
A client who has salicylate intoxication.
A client who has hypoventilation.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C.
Choice A rationale: Thiazide diuretics cause potassium and chloride loss, leading to metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory alkalosis. Hypokalemia decreases hydrogen ion excretion, increasing bicarbonate levels. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by pH >7.45 and HCO₃⁻ >26 mEq/L rather than decreased PaCO₂.
Choice B rationale: Vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis due to gastric acid loss. Hydrogen ion depletion increases bicarbonate concentration, shifting pH above normal. Arterial blood gases typically show increased HCO₃⁻ (>26 mEq/L) with a compensatory increase in PaCO₂ (>45 mmHg), not respiratory alkalosis.
Choice C rationale: Salicylate intoxication initially induces hyperventilation, reducing PaCO₂ levels below 35 mmHg and increasing pH above 7.45, leading to respiratory alkalosis. As toxicity progresses, metabolic acidosis may develop due to lactic acid accumulation, but early stages primarily present with respiratory alkalosis.
Choice D rationale: Hypoventilation leads to CO₂ retention, increasing PaCO₂ above 45 mmHg, forming carbonic acid (H₂CO₃) and causing respiratory acidosis. Blood gases show pH <7.35 with elevated PaCO₂, not respiratory alkalosis, which is caused by excessive CO₂ elimination through hyperventilation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D,C,B,A
Explanation
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Vibroacoustic stimulation is an appropriate action to perform during a nonstress test if there are no fetal heart rate accelerations. It involves using sound or vibration to stimulate the fetus, potentially eliciting the desired heart rate accelerations.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not indicated in this situation. It may not benefit the fetus and is not a standard intervention for nonreactive nonstress test results.
Choice C rationale:
Conducting a vaginal exam is not relevant to the situation described in the question. A nonreactive nonstress test does not require a vaginal exam.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting a specimen for an indirect Coombs test is not necessary for this scenario. The test result would not provide information relevant to the nonreactive nonstress test.
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