A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. The nurse should recognize which of the following manifestations as an adverse reaction to the medication?
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
Hypertension.
Hyperglycemia.
Respiratory rate 16/min.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
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