A nurse is caring for a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. The nurse should recognize which of the following manifestations as an adverse reaction to the medication?
Urine output 20 mL/hr.
Hypertension.
Hyperglycemia.
Respiratory rate 16/min.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Requesting that the provider insert an intrauterine pressure catheter is not the immediate action the nurse should take when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale:
Exerting continuous upward pressure on the presenting part is the correct action when the nurse palpates the umbilical cord during a vaginal examination. This manoeuvre is called "vaginal elevation,”. helps lift the presenting part off the umbilical cord, reducing the risk of cord compression and fetal distress until the provider can take further action.
Choice C rationale:
Initiating oxytocin via continuous IV infusion is not appropriate when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. Oxytocin can cause uterine contractions, potentially further compromising the cord and fetus.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in the left-lateral position is not the best immediate action for cord palpation. While the left-lateral position is useful for relieving pressure on the vena cava in cases of supine hypotensive syndrome, the priority here is to relieve cord compression, and upward pressure on the presenting part is more effective.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The incompetent cervix is not related to the client's current situation. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that may result in premature dilation during pregnancy, leading to potential pregnancy loss or preterm birth. It is not relevant to the client's current stage of labour and cervical dilation.
Choice B rationale:
Postpartum haemorrhage is the correct condition to be concerned about in this situation. The client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated, which indicates she is in active labour. These signs of progress indicate that she is at risk for excessive bleeding after delivery, which is known as postpartum haemorrhage.
Choice C rationale:
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is not related to the client's current presentation, as she is already in active labour.
Choice D rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually during the first trimester. This condition is not relevant to the client's current situation, which involves active labour and cervical dilation.
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