A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing a nonstress test at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?
An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline.
Three uterine contractions within a 20-min period.
One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Here's the rationale for each choice:
Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.
Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.
Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.
Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not used to determine the risk of hypoglycemia in a baby after birth. It is used to detect antibodies against red blood cells, particularly in the context of blood incompatibility between a pregnant woman and her fetus.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is incorrect. An indirect Coombs' test is not related to determining the amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. It is used primarily to assess for Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. The test described here is a Doppler ultrasound, not an indirect Coombs' test. Doppler ultrasound is used to study blood flow in the fetus and placenta using ultrasound waves.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Scant, bright red spotting during early pregnancy can be a normal finding known as implantation bleeding, which occurs when the embryo attaches to the uterus. It is generally not a cause for concern unless it becomes heavy and is accompanied by severe pain.
Choice B rationale:
Elevated hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels during the first trimester are a normal part of a healthy pregnancy. hCG levels peak around 10-12 weeks of gestation and then gradually decrease. A consistent increase in hCG levels is usually a positive sign of a progressing pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
Cervical dilation during the first trimester, especially when the client is only at 12 weeks of gestation, is not normal and may indicate an imminent spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further assessment and management.
Choice D rationale:
Slight abdominal cramps can be a normal symptom during early pregnancy as the uterus undergoes changes and expands. However, unless they are severe and accompanied by other concerning signs such as heavy bleeding, they are not necessarily indicative of an imminent spontaneous abortion.
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