A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had a primary cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection during pregnancy. The newborn acquired CMV transplacentally. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect the newborn to exhibit?
Cataracts
Hearing loss.
Macrosomia
Urinary tract infection (UTI)
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice **b. Hearing loss**.
Choice A rationale:
Cataracts are not a common finding in newborns with congenital CMV infection. Cataracts are more commonly associated with other congenital infections like rubella, toxoplasmosis, and herpes simplex virus (HSV).
Choice B rationale:
Hearing loss is one of the most common manifestations of congenital CMV infection. Up to 40-58% of infants with symptomatic congenital CMV infection develop sensorineural hearing loss, which can be unilateral or bilateral, and progressive over time.
Choice C rationale:
Macrosomia, or large birth size, is not a typical finding in congenital CMV infection. In fact, infants with symptomatic congenital CMV infection are more likely to be small for gestational age or have intrauterine growth restriction.
Choice D rationale:
Urinary tract infection (UTI) is not a common presentation of congenital CMV infection. CMV can cause inclusion bodies in the urine, but overt UTI is not a typical finding. More common manifestations include petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, and central nervous system involvement.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.
Here's the rationale for each choice:
Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.
Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.
Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.
Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.
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