A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an indication of an imminent spontaneous abortion?
Scant, bright red spotting.
Elevated hCG.
Cervical dilation.
Slight abdominal cramps.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Scant, bright red spotting during early pregnancy can be a normal finding known as implantation bleeding, which occurs when the embryo attaches to the uterus. It is generally not a cause for concern unless it becomes heavy and is accompanied by severe pain.
Choice B rationale:
Elevated hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) levels during the first trimester are a normal part of a healthy pregnancy. hCG levels peak around 10-12 weeks of gestation and then gradually decrease. A consistent increase in hCG levels is usually a positive sign of a progressing pregnancy.
Choice C rationale:
Cervical dilation during the first trimester, especially when the client is only at 12 weeks of gestation, is not normal and may indicate an imminent spontaneous abortion (miscarriage). This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further assessment and management.
Choice D rationale:
Slight abdominal cramps can be a normal symptom during early pregnancy as the uterus undergoes changes and expands. However, unless they are severe and accompanied by other concerning signs such as heavy bleeding, they are not necessarily indicative of an imminent spontaneous abortion.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
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