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Ati med surg 1 quiz
Ati med surg 1 quiz
Total Questions : 24
Showing 10 questions Sign up for moreA nurse is working in a preoperative unit. Which task is most appropriate to be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Explanation
A. Assisting the client to remove jewelry is within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical judgment.
B. Providing education about a surgical procedure requires nursing knowledge and cannot be delegated.
C. Instructing the client on the use of an incentive spirometer is a teaching activity requiring an RN’s expertise.
D. Witnessing informed consent is a legal responsibility that must be performed by an RN.
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about anesthesia. The nurse should include that an epidural is an example of which of the following types of anesthesia?
Explanation
A. General anesthesia involves the loss of consciousness and is not related to epidurals.
B. Local anesthesia numbs a small, localized area and is not comparable to epidurals.
C. Moderate sedation provides sedation without loss of consciousness, unrelated to epidural function.
D. Epidural anesthesia is a form of regional anesthesia that blocks sensation in a specific region of the body.
A nurse is caring for a postoperative client who received Midazolam as part of the anesthesia. The client is now in the recovery room. While assessing the client, the nurse observes respiratory depression and decreased oxygen saturation. What immediate actions should the nurse take to address this situation?
Explanation
A. Increasing the infusion would worsen respiratory depression.
B. Supplemental oxygen is supportive but does not address the cause of respiratory depression.
C. Midazolam can cause respiratory depression, and flumazenil (a benzodiazepine antagonist) is the antidote; however, if naloxone is available, it may reverse sedation quickly in emergency scenarios.
D. While neurological assessment is vital, it does not address the immediate issue of respiratory compromise.
A preoperative nurse is assessing a client prior to surgery. Which information would be most important for the nurse to relay to the surgical team?
Explanation
A. Herbs and supplements can interact with anesthesia or affect coagulation, increasing perioperative risks.
B. Lactose intolerance is unlikely to impact surgery unless dietary considerations postoperatively involve lactose-containing foods.
C. A lack of prior surgical experience is relevant but not critical compared to medication or supplement interactions.
D. Bee/wasp allergies are important but less urgent unless directly related to medications or procedures used.
Which is the priority intervention for the nurse to perform in the post anesthesia care unit (PACU)?
Explanation
A. Checking the surgical dressing is important but not as urgent as ensuring respiratory function.
B. Assessing urinary output is necessary but secondary to airway patency.
C. Monitoring blood pressure and blood loss is important but less critical than respiratory status.
D. Airway patency is the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period to prevent respiratory failure.
The nurse is providing preoperative teaching. The client states, "I'm so nervous about my surgery". What is the best response by the nurse?
Explanation
A. While calming, this response does not acknowledge the client’s concerns.
B. This statement may discourage the client and increase anxiety.
C. This response is dismissive and assumes that discussing concerns will eliminate nervousness.
D. Encouraging the client to verbalize concerns fosters trust and allows the nurse to address specific fears.
A nurse is caring for a client who has provided informed consent in preparation for a procedure. The client states, "I have decided not to have the procedure." Which action should the nurse take?
Explanation
A. While discussing alternatives may be beneficial later, it is not the priority action when consent is withdrawn.
B. Informing the provider ensures the client’s right to withdraw consent is respected and initiates appropriate communication.
C. Explaining why the procedure is necessary may feel coercive and does not prioritize the client’s autonomy.
D. Reminding the client about the signed consent form undermines their right to change their decision.
A nurse is scheduling an older client for a surgical clearance appointment. Which intervention is best to reduce the risk of drug interactions for the client?
Explanation
A. Reviewing all current medications and supplements allows the healthcare team to identify potential drug interactions and adjust treatment.
B. While a medication schedule is helpful, it does not address the risk of interactions during pre-surgical planning.
C. Instructing the client to avoid OTC medications is overly broad and may lead to unnecessary medication omission.
D. Filling prescriptions locally does not address the risk of interactions directly.
During a pre-surgical admission assessment, a client states. "I've told my surgeon that I am Jehovah's Witness and I won't accept a blood transfusion." Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Explanation
A. Assuming the client’s decision is based on fear may feel dismissive of their beliefs.
B. Acknowledging and respecting the client’s decision while confirming their right to consent honors their autonomy and builds trust.
C. Questioning the client’s decision undermines their beliefs and autonomy.
D. Reassuring the client about blood loss dismisses their valid concerns about transfusion refusal.
A client asks the nurse why they cannot consume food or liquids before surgery. Which response is most appropriate?
Explanation
A. Peristalsis slows but does not stop entirely with anesthesia, and this explanation is incorrect.
B. Fasting reduces the risk of aspiration by minimizing stomach contents during anesthesia, which is the primary concern.
C. Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance is important but not the main reason for fasting.
D. Reducing the need for a Foley catheter is unrelated to NPO status.
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