RN Fundamentals Online Practice 2023 B

ATI RN Fundamentals Online Practice 2023 B

Total Questions : 59

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Question 1: View

A nurse in a medical-surgical unit is caring for six clients. The nurse needs to assess the clients based on their conditions.

Exhibits

Based on the Nurses’ Notes, which client should the nurse assess first? Please select the correct client number from the choices below:

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Client 1 is admitted with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. While this condition can cause discomfort and requires management, it is a chronic condition that does not typically present an immediate threat to the client’s health. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.

Choice B rationale: Client 2 has a history of hyperlipidemia and has been administered Atorvastatin 20 mg PO as prescribed. Hyperlipidemia is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management, but it does not typically present an immediate threat to the client’s health. The fact that the client has been administered their medication as prescribed suggests that their condition is currently being managed effectively. Therefore, while this client will need to be monitored to ensure that their medication continues to be effective, they are not the highest priority at this time.

Choice C rationale: Client 3 is 1 day postoperative and reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10, even after Morphine 5 mg subcutaneous was administered as prescribed. This indicates that the client’s pain is not well controlled and could be a sign of complications. Therefore, immediate assessment is required. This client should be the nurse’s highest priority.

Choice D rationale: Client 4 is admitted with a new diagnosis of heart failure. Heart failure is a serious condition that can have life- threatening complications. However, the fact that this is a new diagnosis suggests that the client’s condition is not yet severe enough to require immediate intervention. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.

Choice E rationale: Client 5 has a stage 2 pressure injury on the left heel. Pressure injuries can lead to serious complications, including infection and tissue necrosis. However, a stage 2 pressure injury is a relatively minor injury that is unlikely to present an immediate threat to the client’s health. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their pressure injury, they are not the highest priority at this time.

Choice F rationale: Client 6 is admitted with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Diabetes is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management. However, the fact that this is a new diagnosis suggests that the client’s condition is not yet severe enough to require immediate intervention. Therefore, while this client will need to be assessed and their care plan will need to be adjusted to manage their new diagnosis, they are not the highest priority at this time.


Question 2: View

A nurse is caring for a female client. The following diagnostic results have been recorded over two weeks:

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The client is at risk for

as evidenced by the .

Explanation

The client is at risk for Bleeding as evidenced by the Decrease in Platelet count from 350,000/mm² to 100,000/mm².

Rationale for Bleeding: Platelets are a crucial component of the blood that helps in clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. A decrease in platelet count from 350,000/mm² to 100,000/mm² is significant and puts the client at risk for bleeding. This is because when platelet levels fall below the normal range (150,000 to 400,000/mm²), the body’s ability to form clots and stop bleeding is compromised.

Rationale for Anemia: The client’s Hemoglobin level has decreased from 15 g/dL to 12 g/dL, which is at the lower end of the normal range (12 to 16 g/dL). However, it is still within the normal range, so the client is not currently at risk for anemia.

Rationale for Infections: The client’s White Blood Cell (WBC) count has decreased from 8,000/mm² to 6,000/mm², but it is still within the normal range (5,000 to 10,000/mm²). Therefore, the client is not currently at risk for infections.

Rationale for Cardiac arrhythmias: The client’s Potassium level has slightly decreased from 3.7 mEq/L to 3.6 mEq/L, but it is still within the normal range (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). Therefore, the client is not currently at risk for cardiac arrhythmias.


Question 3: View

A 60-year-old male client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. The client is experiencing a worsening of symptoms over the last 24 hours. The client's initial presentation was similar to previous days, but his condition has deteriorated.

Exhibits

Based on the evolution of the client’s condition and the provided exhibits, select all that apply. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's care plan?

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Implementing airborne precautions is not necessary in this case. The client’s symptoms and the progression of their condition suggest a severe respiratory infection, possibly pneumonia, but there is no indication that the infection is airborne.

Airborne precautions are typically reserved for diseases that are spread through tiny droplets in the air, such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox.

Choice B rationale: The client’s worsening respiratory distress, evidenced by increased shortness of breath, use of accessory muscles for breathing, decreased oxygen saturation, and changes in sputum, indicate that the client may require intubation and mechanical ventilation. This would ensure that the client’s airway remains open and that they receive adequate oxygen.

Choice C rationale: The client has a history of well-managed diabetes mellitus. Given the stress of the illness and the initiation of corticosteroid therapy (which can raise blood glucose levels), it would be important to monitor the client’s blood glucose levels frequently.

Choice D rationale: The client has been prescribed Levofloxacin, an antibiotic, which should be administered as prescribed. Given the client’s symptoms and the progression of their condition, it is likely that they have a bacterial infection. Antibiotics are critical for treating bacterial infections.

Choice E rationale: Ensuring strict hand hygiene before and after client contact is a standard precaution in all healthcare settings to prevent the spread of infection.

Choice F rationale: Increasing fluid intake can help thin out the sputum, making it easier for the client to cough it up. This can help improve the client’s respiratory function.

Choice G rationale: There is no current indication for a chest tube insertion. While the client’s chest X-ray shows extensive consolidation and possible pleural effusion, the notes do not indicate that the effusion is large enough to require drainage at this time. A chest tube would be considered if the effusion was large and causing significant respiratory distress, which is not clearly the case here.


Question 4: View

Scenario:

A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of sudden shortness of breath and chest tightness. She has a history of hypertension and diabetes.

Exhibits

A nurse is assessing the client at 0700 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A Initiate a cardiac enzyme panel

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Initiating a cardiac enzyme panel can help determine if the client has had a heart attack. However, this is not the immediate priority. The client’s symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event, which needs to be addressed first. An ECG can provide immediate information, while a cardiac enzyme panel takes longer to return results.

Choice B rationale: Starting intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary depending on the client’s hydration status and overall condition. However, it is not the immediate priority. The client’s symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event, which needs to be addressed first.

Choice C rationale: Providing pain relief medication may be necessary if the client is in pain. However, the client’s primary complaint is chest tightness and difficulty breathing, not pain. Therefore, addressing the potential cardiac issue is the priority.

Choice D rationale: The client’s symptoms of sudden shortness of breath, chest tightness, and anxiety, along with her history of hypertension and diabetes, are concerning for a possible cardiac event. An electrocardiogram (ECG) can provide immediate information about the heart’s electrical activity and help identify if the client is experiencing a heart attack or other cardiac event. This should be the first action taken to quickly identify the cause of the client’s symptoms and initiate appropriate treatment.

Choice E rationale: Performing a comprehensive physical assessment is an important part of nursing care. However, in this situation, the client’s symptoms indicate a need for immediate intervention to address her potential cardiac issue.

Choice F rationale: Monitoring the client’s blood glucose levels is important given her history of diabetes. However, this is not the immediate priority. The client’s symptoms suggest a possible cardiac event, which needs to be addressed first.


Question 5: View

A nurse is attending to a patient who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs. The patient’s vital signs at 0800 and 0815 are given.

Heart rate of 110 bpm

Complete the following sentence using the list of options.

The patient exhibits symptoms of ________

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertension refers to high blood pressure, which is not directly indicated by the given vital signs.

Choice B rationale

Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is also not directly indicated by the provided vital signs.

Choice C rationale

Tachycardia refers to a fast heart rate. If the patient’s heart rate increased significantly between 0800 and 0815, this could be a sign of tachycardia.

Choice D rationale

Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, would be indicated by a decrease in heart rate, which is not suggested by the given information.


Question 6: View A nurse is instructing a patient on how to self-administer heparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle is not recommended for subcutaneous injections like heparin. The needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle.

Choice B rationale

Aspirating for blood return before administration is not necessary when administering heparin.

Choice C rationale

Heparin should be administered into the abdominal fat layer, above the iliac crest and at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus.

Choice D rationale

Massaging the site after the injection is not recommended as it can cause bruising.


Question 7: View A nurse is administering an otic medication to an older adult patient.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure the medication reaches the inner ear?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Pressing gently on the tragus of the ear after administering the medication can help the medication to reach the inner ear.

Choice B rationale

Packing a small piece of cotton deep into the patient’s ear canal is not recommended as it can cause damage to the ear.

Choice C rationale

Moving the patient’s auricle down and back towards their head is not necessary when administering otic medication.

Choice D rationale

Tilting the patient’s head backward for 5 minutes is not required when administering otic medication.


Question 8: View A nurse is educating a terminally ill patient about declining resuscitation in a living will.
The patient asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the emergency department and I had difficulty breathing?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

If a patient with a living will arrived at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, the healthcare team would provide immediate care to ease the patient’s distress, such as administering oxygen.

Choice B rationale

While a living will outlines a patient’s wishes for end-of-life care, it does not prevent the patient from receiving immediate, necessary care in an emergency situation.

Choice C rationale

Inserting a breathing tube may be necessary in some cases, but it would not be the first step in managing difficulty breathing.

Choice D rationale

While the healthcare team would consult the person appointed by the patient’s healthcare proxy to make decisions, immediate care would not be delayed.


Question 9: View A nurse is placing a patient on isolation precautions. The patient’s diagnostic results at 1400 are given.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

When a patient is placed on isolation precautions, the nurse should wear an N95 mask when caring for the patient. This is to protect the nurse from airborne particles that may be present in the patient’s environment.

Choice B rationale

Another important action the nurse should take is to place a container for soiled linens inside the patient’s room. This is to prevent the spread of infection from the patient’s room to other areas of the healthcare facility.

Choice C rationale

Wearing a sterile, water-resistant gown if within 3 feet of the patient is not necessary unless the patient has a condition that requires contact precautions, such as MRSA or VRE. In general, isolation precautions do not require the use of a sterile gown unless performing a sterile procedure.

Choice D rationale

Ensuring the patient’s room is well-ventilated is important for certain types of isolation precautions, such as airborne precautions for tuberculosis. However, it is not a standard action for all isolation precautions.


Question 10: View A nurse in a clinic is caring for a middle-aged patient who states, “The doctor says that, since I am at an average risk for colon cancer, I should have a routine screening.
What does that involve?” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While colonoscopy is a screening method for colon cancer, it is not typically recommended to begin at age 60 for individuals at average risk. Instead, colonoscopy screening is usually recommended to begin at age 50 and continue every 10 years if no polyps are found.

Choice B rationale

The recommendation for an average risk individual for colon cancer is to have a fecal occult blood test every year. This test checks for hidden blood in the stool, which can be an early sign of cancer.

Choice C rationale

Sigmoidoscopy every 10 years is another screening option for colon cancer. However, it only examines the rectum and lower third of the colon, whereas a colonoscopy examines the entire colon.

Choice D rationale

Blood tests are not typically used as a primary screening method for colon cancer. They may be used in conjunction with other tests, but a blood sample alone is not sufficient for screening.


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