B. Allopurinol is primarily prescribed to lower uric acid levels in the blood. It achieves this by inhibiting the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the production of uric acid. Lowering uric acid levels helps prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, which can lead to gout attacks or kidney stones.
A. Triglycerides are a type of fat found in the blood. Allopurinol is not directly involved in lowering triglyceride levels. Medications that are typically used to lower triglycerides include statins, fibrates, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.
C. Albumin is a protein found in the blood, and its levels can be affected by various factors such as liver or kidney function. Allopurinol is not known to directly influence albumin levels. Therefore, an increase in albumin would not be a laboratory finding indicative of the effectiveness of allopurinol.
D. Potassium levels in the blood can be influenced by medications, diet, kidney function, and other factors. Allopurinol is not typically associated with increasing potassium levels. In fact, certain medications used to treat gout, such as thiazide diuretics, can lead to increased potassium levels.

A. Renal function typically declines with age, leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and renal blood flow. As a result, medications may be excreted more slowly from the body, leading to an increased risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Adjustments in medication dosages or dosing intervals may be necessary to account for this age-related change.
B. Brain receptors do not change significantly. However, older adults may require lower doses to achieve the same therapeutic effect due to reduced receptor sensitivity.
C. Gastric emptying tends to slow down with age rather than increase. Delayed gastric emptying can affect the absorption of orally administered medications, leading to unpredictable drug levels and potentially reduced efficacy.
D. Hepatic function generally decreases with age, leading to a decline in the metabolic capacity of the liver. This can result in slower drug metabolism and clearance, prolonging the duration of action of medications and increasing the risk of adverse effects.

A. Opioid overdose typically results in central nervous system depression, which can lead to bradycardia (slow heart rate) rather than tachycardia. Bradycardia occurs due to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity.
B. Bradyppnea is a common finding in opioid overdose due to the depressive effect of opioids on the respiratory center in the brainstem. Opioids can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to shallow and rapid breathing, or even respiratory arrest in severe cases.
C. Sedation or drowsiness is a hallmark feature of opioid overdose. Oxycodone, like other opioids, acts on the central nervous system to produce analgesia and sedation. In cases of overdose, sedation may progress to unconsciousness and respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening.
D. Opioid overdose typically causes pinpoint (constricted) pupils rather than dilated pupils. The constriction of pupils, known as miosis, is a classic sign of opioid toxicity due to the suppression of the sympathetic nervous system.

A. Furosemide can decrease the renal clearance of lithium, leading to increased lithium levels in the blood. This can potentiate the toxic effects of lithium, such as neurotoxicity and cardiac toxicity. Therefore, concurrent use of furosemide and lithium is generally contraindicated, and caution is advised. The nurse should identify lithium carbonate as contraindicated in this scenario.
B. Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). There are no significant contraindications between albuterol and furosemide.
C. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. There are no significant contraindications between levothyroxine and furosemide.
D. Cetirizine is an antihistamine used to treat allergies and allergic reactions. There are no significant contraindications between cetirizine and furosemide. They are generally considered safe to use together.

B. Phenytoin is associated with gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. It's essential for clients taking phenytoin to maintain good oral hygiene and receive regular dental check-ups to monitor for this side effect.
A. Phenytoin is not known to directly diminish potassium levels. However, it can cause a variety of electrolyte imbalances, including hyponatremia (low sodium levels) and hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), but not typically hypokalemia (low potassium levels).
C. Ginkgo biloba is an herbal supplement that does not interact with phenytoin.
D. Phenytoin can cause photosensitivity reactions in some individuals, leading to an increased risk of sunburn. However, teaching on gingival hyperplasia is more important.

B. Fatty foods can delay the absorption of sildenafil, potentially delaying its onset of action. While it's not necessary to completely avoid fatty foods, consuming a high-fat meal shortly before taking sildenafil may delay its effects. Therefore, it's advisable to avoid large, high-fat meals before taking sildenafil to optimize its effectiveness.
A. Sildenafil is typically taken on an as-needed basis, approximately 30 minutes to 1 hour before anticipated sexual activity. Taking sildenafil more than once a day is not recommended and can increase the risk of adverse effects and complications.
C. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction by improving blood flow to the penis, but it does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
D. Constipation is not a common side effect of sildenafil. Common side effects of sildenafil include headache, flushing, indigestion, nasal congestion, and dizziness. Constipation is not typically associated with sildenafil use.

D. The expected therapeutic effect of montelukast is the reduction of bronchial inflammation. By blocking leukotriene receptors, montelukast helps to prevent the constriction of airway muscles, decrease mucus secretion, and reduce inflammation in the airways. This can lead to improved asthma control and symptom management.
A. Montelukast is not indicated for the treatment of gastric acid-related conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) or peptic ulcers.
B. Montelukast is not typically associated with peripheral vasodilation. Its primary mechanism of action involves blocking the action of leukotrienes, which are inflammatory mediators involved in allergic and asthmatic reactions.
C. Montelukast does not affect white blood cell (WBC) count.

A. When administering a TST, the nurse should select an injection site that is free of scar tissue and areas with excessive hair, veins, or visible lesions. The preferred site for TST administration is the volar aspect of the forearm, approximately 2-4 inches below the elbow.
B. After administering the TST, the nurse should not massage or manipulate the injection site. Massaging the site can cause irritation or spread the solution, leading to inaccurate results.
C. he TST is administered intradermally, typically with a 27-gauge needle. The needle should be inserted with the bevel facing upward at a 5-15-degree angle.
D. The standard dose of tuberculin solution (e.g., purified protein derivative, PPD) for a TST is 0.1 mL containing 5 tuberculin units (TU).