Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A

ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A

Total Questions : 175

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Question 1: View

A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant. Choice A rationale: Aspirin should not be administered to children or adolescents with viral infections like rubella due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition that causes liver and brain damage. Choice B rationale: Rubella (German measles) is particularly dangerous for pregnant women because it can cause congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, leading to severe birth defects. Therefore, isolating the client from pregnant staff is crucial to prevent exposure. Choice C rationale: Airborne precautions are not necessary for rubella. Rubella is transmitted through respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions, not airborne precautions, are appropriate. Choice D rationale: Koplik spots are associated with measles (rubeola), not rubella. Therefore, monitoring for Koplik spots is not relevant for a client with rubella.

Question 2: View

A nurse is setting up a sterile field to perform wound irrigation for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when pouring the sterile solution?

Explanation

The correct answer is choiceC. Remove the cap and place it sterile-side up on a clean surface.

Choice A rationale:

Placing sterile gauze over areas of spilled solution within the sterile field is not recommended. Spilled solution can compromise the sterility of the field, and covering it with gauze does not restore sterility. Instead, the nurse should avoid spilling solution to maintain the sterile field.

Choice B rationale:

Holding the irrigation solution bottle with the label facing away from the palm of the hand is incorrect. The correct technique is to hold the bottle with the label facing the palm. This prevents the label from getting wet and unreadable, ensuring that the nurse can always identify the solution correctly.

Choice C rationale:

Removing the cap and placing it sterile-side up on a clean surface is the correct action. This maintains the sterility of the cap, preventing contamination when it is replaced on the bottle. Ensuring the cap remains sterile is crucial for maintaining the sterility of the solution.

Choice D rationale:

Holding the bottle in the center of the sterile field when pouring the solution is incorrect. The bottle should be held outside the sterile field to prevent contamination. The solution should be poured carefully to avoid splashing and compromising the sterile field.


Question 3: View

A charge nurse is concerned about a recent increase in facility-acquired catheter infections.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Explanation

The correct first action for the charge nurse to take in response to an increase in facility-acquired catheter infections is toidentify possible precipitating factors related to the infections. This is because understanding the root cause of the problem is crucial before implementing any changes or interventions. By identifying the factors contributing to the increase in infections, the nurse can then develop targeted strategies to address these specific issues.

Now, let’s discuss why the other options are not the first actions to take:

  1. Schedule nursing staff training for infection control procedures: While training is important, it should be based on identified needs. Without first understanding the precipitating factors of the increased infections, the training may not address the actual issues at hand.

  2. Meet with providers to discuss measures to decrease the infections: This could be a subsequent step after identifying the precipitating factors. Meeting with providers without concrete data or understanding of the problem may lead to ineffective solutions.

  3. Revise the current policy for catheter care: Policy revision should be based on evidence and identified needs. It would be premature to revise policies without first understanding what factors are contributing to the increase in infections.

In summary, the first step in addressing a problem is always to understand its causes. Only then can effective solutions be developed and implemented.


Question 4: View

A nurse is providing care for a client who experienced a myocardial infarction prior to a cardiac arrest. Which of the following laboratory tests will identify early injury to the cardiac muscle?

Explanation

Answer:D. Troponin T test

Rationale:

A. Creatine kinase (CK) test: While creatine kinase isoenzymes, including CK-MB, can be elevated following myocardial infarction (MI), they are not specific to cardiac muscle injury. CK is found in various tissues throughout the body, so elevated levels can also indicate damage to skeletal muscle or brain tissue, among other sources.

B. Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test: CK-MB is a cardiac-specific isoform of creatine kinase, and elevated levels can indicate myocardial injury, particularly in the context of an acute MI. However, troponin T is a more sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury.

C. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test: Brain natriuretic peptide is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. While elevated BNP levels can indicate heart muscle strain or stress, they are not specific markers for acute myocardial infarction or early injury to the cardiac muscle.

D. Troponin T test: This is the correct answer. Troponin T is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle injury. Elevated troponin levels can be detected within hours of myocardial infarction and persist for several days, making it an essential tool in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndromes, including myocardial infarction. Troponin T is considered one of the gold standard biomarkers for detecting early injury to the cardiac muscle.


Question 5: View

A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of nurses about malpractice issues in nursing. Which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching as an example of malpractice?

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. Administering potassium via IV bolus is an example of malpractice in nursing.

This is because potassium is a medication that can cause cardiac arrest if given too quickly or in high doses. A nurse who administers potassium via IV bolus is not providing the standard of care that a similarly trained nurse would have offered under the same circumstances.

This could result in harm or death to the patient.

Choice A is wrong because placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls is not malpractice, but rather a safety measure.

A yellow bracelet indicates that the client needs assistance with mobility and should not be left alone. This is a common practice in many health care facilities to prevent falls and injuries.

Choice B is wrong because leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication is not malpractice, but rather a mistake.

A nasogastric tube is a tube that goes through the nose and into the stomach to deliver nutrition or medication.

It should be unclamped after giving oral medication to allow the medication to enter the stomach and prevent reflux or aspiration. However, this error does not rise to the level of malpractice unless it causes harm to the patient, such as vomiting, choking, or infection.

Choice D is wrong because documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client’s medical record is not malpractice, but rather a good practice. A nurse


Question 6: View

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic pain about avoiding constipation from opioid medications.

Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. Increase exercise.

Exercise can help stimulate bowel movements and prevent constipation, which is a common side effect of opioid medications.

Exercise can also improve blood circulation, reduce stress, and enhance mood, which can benefit clients who have chronic pain.

Choice A is wrong because decreasing insoluble fiber intake can worsen constipation.

Insoluble fiber adds bulk to the stool and helps it pass more easily through the colon.

Clients who take opioid medications should increase their intake of insoluble fiber from sources such as whole grains, fruits, vegetables, nuts, and seeds.

Choice C is wrong because drinking less water can lead to dehydration and hardening of the stool, which can make it more difficult to pass.

Clients who take opioid medications should drink plenty of water to keep the stool soft and moist.

Choice D is wrong because taking a laxative every day can cause dependence, tolerance, and electrolyte imbalance.

Laxatives should be used only as a last resort and under the guidance of a health care provider.

Clients who take opioid medications should try other methods of preventing constipation first, such as increasing exercise, fiber, and water intake.


Question 7: View

A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease.

Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The nurse should ensure the state health department has been notified of the child’s Lyme disease, as it is a reportable disease in most states.

Reporting helps to monitor the incidence and prevalence of Lyme disease and to implement prevention and control measures.

Choice B is wrong because antitoxin is not used to treat Lyme disease.

Antitoxin is a substance that neutralizes the effects of a toxin, such as botulism or tetanus. Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium called Borrelia burgdorferi, which can be treated with antibiotics.

Choice C is wrong because Lyme disease is not transmitted by sharing personal belongings. Lyme disease is spread to humans by the bite of infected ticks that carry the

bacterium. The risk of getting Lyme disease can be reduced by avoiding tick-infested areas, wearing protective clothing, using insect repellent, and removing ticks promptly.

Choice D is wrong because skin necrosis is not a common complication of Lyme disease.

Skin necrosis is the death of skin tissue due to lack of blood supply or infection. Lyme disease can cause a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans, which is usually circular or oval and expands over time. Other possible signs and symptoms of Lyme disease include fever, headache, fatigue, joint pain, and neurological problems.


Question 8: View

A nurse is providing preoperative teaching to a client about promoting circulation during the postoperative period.

Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Explanation

This instruction will help the client to prevent venous stasis and thrombosis, which are common postoperative complications. Range-of-motion exercises promote blood circulation and prevent muscle atrophy and contractures.

Choice B. “Use an incentive spirometer every 4 hours.” is wrong because it is not related to promoting circulation, but rather to improving lung expansion and preventing atelectasis and pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer is also important for postoperative clients, but it does not address the question.

Choice C. “Remain on bed rest for 24 hours following the procedure.” is wrong because it is the opposite of promoting circulation.

Bed rest increases the risk of venous stasis, thrombosis, and pulmonary embolism. Postoperative clients should be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible, unless contraindicated.

Choice D. “Place a pillow under your knees while in bed.” is wrong because it also impairs circulation and increases the risk of thrombosis.

Placing a pillow under the knees can cause pressure on the popliteal veins and reduce blood flow. Postoperative clients should avoid this position and keep their legs in a neutral or slightly elevated position.


Question 9: View

A nurse is caring for a client who requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit.

Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.

Rationale for Choice a. Discuss with the client his inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion:

While discussing the client's behavior may be helpful in some situations, it is not the most appropriate action to take immediately before seclusion. This is because:

  1. Escalation:Attempting to discuss behavior in the moments leading up to seclusion can potentially escalate the situation and further jeopardize the safety of the client,staff,and other patients.
  2. Impaired Insight:Clients requiring seclusion may have limited ability to engage in rational discussion due to heightened emotional states,cognitive impairment,or acute mental illness.
  3. Limited Receptiveness:The client may not be receptive to feedback or discussion while in a state of crisis,potentially leading to frustration and further agitation.

Rationale for Choice b. Offer fluids every 2 hr.:

Offering fluids is a basic nursing intervention, but it is not the priority action in this scenario. The primary focus at this time is ensuring safety and managing the acute behavioral crisis. Addressing hydration needs can be attended to after the client is safely placed in seclusion.

Rationale for Choice d. Assess the client’s behavior once every hour.:

Regular assessment is crucial, but hourly assessment is not frequent enough in this situation. Clients in seclusion require close monitoring and assessment at more frequent intervals to ensure their safety and well-being, as well as to evaluate the effectiveness of the seclusion intervention.

Rationale for Choice c. Document the client’s behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.:

This is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take for the following reasons:

  1. Legal and Ethical Requirements:Accurate documentation of the client's behavior prior to seclusion is essential for legal and ethical reasons.It serves as a record of the rationale for seclusion,supporting the decision-making process and ensuring adherence to best practices and patient rights.
  2. Assessment and Intervention Planning:Detailed documentation provides valuable information for ongoing assessment and intervention planning.It allows healthcare professionals to track the client's progress,identify patterns in behavior,and make informed decisions about the continuation or discontinuation of seclusion.
  3. Communication and Collaboration:Comprehensive documentation facilitates effective communication and collaboration among the healthcare team members,ensuring continuity of care and promoting a holistic approach to the client's treatment.
  4. Evaluation and Quality Improvement:Accurate documentation enables evaluation of the effectiveness of seclusion interventions and contributes to quality improvement initiatives within the healthcare setting.

Question 10: View

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a peripheral IV catheter.

After puncturing the skin with the vascular access device and noting a blood return in the flashback chamber, which of the following actions should the nurse perform next?

Explanation

This is because after puncturing the skin and the vein, the nurse needs to advance the catheter into the vein with the finger hub to ensure proper placement and prevent complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.

Choice A is wrong because flushing the catheter with saline should be done after securing the catheter to the skin with a transparent dressing and attaching a primed piece of extension tubing to the catheter.

Choice B is wrong because retracting the stylet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and releasing the tourniquet from the client’s arm.

Choice C is wrong because releasing the tourniquet should be done after advancing the catheter into the vein and before retracting the stylet.


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