A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant. Choice A rationale: Aspirin should not be administered to children or adolescents with viral infections like rubella due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition that causes liver and brain damage. Choice B rationale: Rubella (German measles) is particularly dangerous for pregnant women because it can cause congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, leading to severe birth defects. Therefore, isolating the client from pregnant staff is crucial to prevent exposure. Choice C rationale: Airborne precautions are not necessary for rubella. Rubella is transmitted through respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions, not airborne precautions, are appropriate. Choice D rationale: Koplik spots are associated with measles (rubeola), not rubella. Therefore, monitoring for Koplik spots is not relevant for a client with rubella.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B, C, and D. The nurse should give the client one simple direction at a time, reinforce orientation to time, place, and person, and establish eye contact when communicating with the client.
These interventions can help the client with dementia to understand and follow instructions, reduce confusion and anxiety, and enhance communication.
Choice A is wrong because allowing the client to choose among a variety of activities each day can overwhelm and frustrate the client with dementia.
The nurse should provide a structured and consistent daily routine for the client.
Choice E is wrong because refuting the client’s delusions using logic can increase the client’s agitation and distrust.
The nurse should use validation therapy to acknowledge the client’s feelings and emotions without arguing or correcting the client.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, the nurse manager should include the following guideline:
A) Document the client’s condition every 15 min
Frequent documentation of the client's condition and the need for restraint is essential to monitor their well-being and ensure that restraints are used only when necessary. The other options are not recommended:
B) Requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive is not appropriate because restraints should only be used when there is an immediate risk to the patient or others, and obtaining a PRN prescription for restraints is generally not standard practice.
C) Attaching the restraint to the bed's side rails is not recommended because restraints should be used as a last resort, and there are specific guidelines for restraint application to ensure patient safety.
D) Removing the client's restraint every is not appropriate either. Restraints should only be removed when the client's condition improves, and alternatives to restraint have been explored, or when it's deemed necessary for the patient's safety and well-being following established protocols and guidelines. The option seems incomplete and does not specify the appropriate time frame for removal.
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