A nurse is caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Ketorolac
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Place a wedge under one of the client’s hips. This is because placing a wedge under one of the hips can help prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, which can compromise placental blood flow and cause fetal hypoxia. Placing a wedge under the hip can also help reduce the risk of maternal hypotension, which can also affect fetal oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because inserting a pillow under the client’s knees can increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice B is wrong because positioning the client in reverse Trendelenburg can increase the risk of maternal aspiration, which is another potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice C is wrong because assisting the client into the lithotomy position can also compress the inferior vena cava and reduce placental blood flow. The lithotomy position is also not necessary for cesarean birth, as the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen and uterus.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The nurse should recognize the client is experiencing preterm labor due to previous preterm birth.
Preterm labor is when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy. One of the risk factors for preterm labor is having a previous preterm delivery. The client’s history indicates that her last pregnancy resulted in a preterm spontaneous vaginal birth at 30 weeks gestation. The client’s current symptoms, such as lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, uterine contractions and cervical dilation, also suggest that she is in preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should recognize that the client is experiencing preterm labor due to previous preterm birth.
BMI, blood type and blood pressure are not causes of preterm labor in this case. BMI may be associated with preterm labor if it is too high or too low, but the client’s BMI is within the normal range for pregnancy. Blood type may cause Rh incompatibility if the mother is Rh negative and the baby is Rh positive, but the client’s blood type is Rh positive. Blood pressure may cause preeclampsia if it is too high, but the client’s blood pressure is normal. Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and fetal distress. The client does not have these signs.
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