A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing hypovolemia.
Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
Epistaxis
Headache
Dizziness
Shortness of breath
The Correct Answer is C
, dizziness.
Dizziness is a manifestation of hypovolemia, which is a decrease in blood volume due to fluid loss.
Hypovolemia can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
Choice A, epistaxis, is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a possible cause of it. Epistaxis is a nosebleed that can result from trauma, infection, dryness, or coagulation disorders.
Choice B, headache, is wrong because it is not a specific sign of hypovolemia, but rather a nonspecific symptom that can have many causes. Headache can be associated with dehydration, but it can also be caused by stress, infection, inflammation, or other factors.
Choice D, shortness of breath, is wrong because it is not a sign of hypovolemia, but rather a sign of fluid volume excess.
Fluid volume excess is an increase in blood volume due to fluid retention or overload. Fluid volume excess can cause dyspnea, which is difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg for adults.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A option
Fibrinogen level: Fibrinogen is a protein involved in the blood clotting process, but in this case, it is not appropriate because is not the primary laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy. Monitoring fibrinogen levels is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders or certain medical conditions.
Choice B option
PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time): PTT is another laboratory test used to evaluate blood clotting function, particularly the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT is not routinely used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to monitor other anticoagulant medications like heparin.
Choice C option
The nurse should plan to report the client's INR (International Normalized Ratio) to obtain a prescription for the client's daily warfarin. INR is a critical laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy.
Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed to prevent and treat blood clots. It works by interfering with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. Monitoring the INR is essential because it indicates how long it takes for the blood to clot, and it helps determine if the client's warfarin dosage needs adjustment to achieve the desired level of anticoagulation.
Choice D option
Platelet count: Platelet count is essential to assess the number of platelets in the blood, which are crucial for normal clotting. However, platelet count monitoring is not the primary focus when prescribing warfarin. It is typically used to evaluate thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) or other conditions affecting platelet function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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