A nurse manager on an interprofessional team is creating a disaster plan. The nurse should include in the plan that which of the following actions is the responsibility of the unit nurse during a disaster?
Act as a spokesperson to provide information to the media.
Recommend to the provider a list of clients for early discharge.
Determine the need for additional providers.
Decide which clients should be transported for a higher level of care.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason
Act as a spokesperson to provide information to the media in inappropriate. During a disaster, the nurse manager or designated hospital spokesperson usually handles communication with the media. The unit nurse's primary focus is on patient care and ensuring the safety and well-being of the clients on their unit.
Choice B reason
Recommending to the provider a list of clients for early discharge is the action that should be taken by the nurse. During a disaster, the responsibility of the unit nurse includes recommending to the healthcare provider a list of clients who may be considered for early discharge. This decision is based on the nurse's assessment of the clients' conditions and the need to create additional capacity for incoming patients who require urgent medical attention.
Choice C reason:
Determining the need for additional providers is inappropriate. The determination of the need for additional providers during a disaster is usually made at a higher level, such as by the nursing supervisor, nurse manager, or hospital administration. The unit nurse may collaborate with the nursing leadership to assess staffing needs and provide input, but the final decision is typically made at a higher level.
Choice D reason
Deciding which clients should be transported for a higher level of care is not the responsibility of the nurse. Decisions about transferring clients for a higher level of care during a disaster are usually made collaboratively among the healthcare team, including the healthcare providers and nursing leadership. The unit nurse may provide valuable input about the clients' conditions, but the decision is not solely the responsibility of the unit nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D, spotting.
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester.
Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
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