A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for 1 unit of packed RBCs. Five minutes after beginning the transfusion, the client becomes febrile with chills. After stopping the transfusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.
Place the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding.
Document the reaction in the medical record.
Infuse 500 ml lactated Ringer's IV.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason:
Administer epinephrine subcutaneously. This is not the necessary action to be taken. Epinephrine is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). However, in this case, the client is experiencing a febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reaction, not an allergic reaction.
Choice B reason:
Place the blood bag in a biohazard bag before discarding. This is not the necessary action to be taken by the nurse. Proper disposal of biohazardous materials is essential, but in this situation, the nurse's priority is to address the client's condition and not the disposal of the blood bag.
Choice C reason:
Documentation of the transfusion reaction is crucial for the client's medical history and for future reference. The nurse should record the client's signs and symptoms, the actions taken, and any other relevant information related to the reaction.
Choice D reason
Infuse 500 ml lactated Ringer's IV.This is not necessary action to be taken by the nurse because there is no indication for infusing lactated Ringer's solution in response to the transfusion reaction described. Treatment for febrile non-haemolytic transfusion reactions generally involves stopping the transfusion, administering antipyretics (like acetaminophen) if necessary, and providing supportive care as needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Blood pressure: A normal blood pressure for an adolescent is 110/70 mm Hg. The question does not provide the adolescent's blood pressure, so it cannot be determined if it requires follow-up or not.
B. Capillary refill: A normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. A prolonged capillary refill time indicates impaired blood flow to the extremity, which could be due to vascular injury, compartment syndrome, or shock.
C. Pedal pulse: A normal pedal pulse is +2 or +3. A weak pedal pulse (+1) indicates reduced blood flow to the extremity, which could be due to vascular injury, compartment syndrome, or shock.
D. Heart rate: A normal heart rate for an adolescent is 60 to 100 beats per minute. The question does not provide the adolescent's heart rate, so it cannot be determined if it requires follow-up or not.
E. Skin temperature: A normal skin temperature is warm and dry. A cool skin temperature indicates reduced blood flow to the extremity, which could be due to vascular injury, compartment syndrome, or shock.
F. Pain: A pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10 indicates severe pain that needs to be managed with appropriate analgesics and nonpharmacological interventions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A bowel patern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel patern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patern. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities.
When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel patern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
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