A nurse is assessing a client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 48 hr ago. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the therapy has been effective?
Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL
WBC count 12.000/mm
Potassium 48 mEq
BUN 18 mg/dL
The Correct Answer is A
- A. Correct. A hemoglobin level of 14.9 g/dL indicates that the client has an adequate amount of oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood, which is the goal of blood transfusion therapy.
- B. Incorrect. A WBC count of 12,000/mm3 is slightly elevated and may indicate an infection or inflammation, which are not related to blood transfusion therapy.
- C. Incorrect. A potassium level of 48 mEq/L is dangerously high and may cause cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, or paralysis. This is not an expected outcome of blood transfusion therapy and may indicate hemolysis or renal impairment.
- D. Incorrect. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL is within the normal range and does not reflect the effectiveness of blood transfusion therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypoxemia is a condition of low oxygen levels in the blood. PEEP can actually improve oxygenation by preventing alveolar collapse and increasing functional residual capacity.
B. Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition of air accumulation in the pleural space that causes increased intrathoracic pressure and compresses the lungs, heart, and great vessels. PEEP can increase the risk of tension pneumothorax by creating excessive positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
C. Malignant hypertension is a severe form of high blood pressure that can cause organ damage and stroke. PEEP can cause a transient increase in blood pressure due to increased intrathoracic pressure, but it does not cause malignant hypertension.
D. Atelectasis is a condition of partial or complete lung collapse due to alveolar collapse or obstruction. PEEP can prevent or treat atelectasis by maintaining positive pressure in the airways and alveoli.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Attaching a prefilled syringe to the catheter inflation hub is a step performed after the catheter insertion to inflate the balloon, securing the catheter in the bladder. This action is not the first step and should not be done before cleansing the meatus and positioning the sterile drape.
Choice B rationale:
Positioning the sterile drape leaving the perineum exposed is a necessary step in maintaining the sterility of the procedure area. However, it is not the first action the nurse should take. Cleaning the client's meatus with an antiseptic solution is the initial step to prevent infection during catheter insertion.
Choice C rationale:
Cleaning the client's meatus with antiseptic solution is the first step in inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. This action helps to reduce the risk of urinary tract infection by minimizing the introduction of bacteria into the urethra.
Choice D rationale:
Lubricating the catheter with water-soluble gel is a step performed after cleansing the meatus and positioning the sterile drape. It facilitates the smooth insertion of the catheter into the urethra. However, it is not the first action to be taken.
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