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A nurse is providing phone advice for a client who is pregnant.

Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

Exhibits

The client is at risk for experiencing

due to the .
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

The client is at risk for experiencing electrolyte imbalance due to the vomiting. Persistent vomiting during pregnancy, especially with significant weight loss, can lead to electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hyponatremia, or metabolic alkalosis. This can result from the body's inability to retain essential minerals and fluids. The client’s reported diet of minimal food intake, primarily consisting of toast and pretzels, indicates inadequate nutrition and potential for further exacerbation of these imbalances.

The significant weight loss of 6.8 kg (15 lb) within a month and continuous nausea and vomiting are concerning symptoms that warrant immediate medical evaluation. The nurse’s advice to seek a provider’s assessment underscores the need for timely intervention to address potential complications, ensure maternal and fetal health, and possibly prescribe antiemetic medications or other treatments to manage symptoms.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The client is taking numerous deep, measured breaths. This is not an indication of potential violence, but rather a coping strategy to calm down and regulate emotions.

B. The client is calmly telling their partner that "the staff here is so controlling." This is not an indication of potential violence, but rather a expression of frustration or dissatisfaction with the treatment setting.

C. The client is sitting with their head in their hands and appears to be crying. This is not an indication of potential violence, but rather a sign of sadness or distress.

D. The client is pacing around the chair in which their partner is sitting. This is an indication of potential violence, as it shows restlessness, agitation, and possible intimidation of the partner.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Radial vein of the inner arm. This is correct because this site is easily accessible, has good blood flow, and has less risk of complications such as infection, thrombosis, or infiltration.

B. Great saphenous vein of the leg. This is incorrect because this site is not recommended for older adults due to poor circulation, increased risk of thrombophlebitis, and difficulty in monitoring.

C. Dorsal plexus vein of the foot. This is incorrect because this site is prone to edema, infection, and injury, and can interfere with mobility and comfort.

D. Basilic vein of the hand. This is incorrect because this site is more painful, has smaller veins, and can cause nerve damage or occlusion if not inserted carefully.

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